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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is James 4:3 completely true? | James 4:3 | biblenovice | 223273 | ||
By stating that there are more than two possible answers to the dilemna I presented, you are asserting that the scriptures are in error on the omission side, by leaving out numerous other possible reasons for the same outcome! By making that assertion, aren't you stating that the scriptures are NOT error-free, by reason of omission? How many reasons for NOT receiving what we ASK for were cited in the context of the scripture referenced, which was James 4:3? There was only one reason given, without so much as a hint of any other reasons (such as the phrase "among others"). The very next verse (James 4:4) completely abandons the subject at hand, not even involving "asking or receiving." Notice that there was no mention of "prayers" in either James 4:3, nor in my original question, but only of "asking." If you ask someone to pass the potatoes at the dinner table, are you praying to that person, or just making a simple request? Phillipians 4:19 states that God will supply all our need! Do you think people need heaters or defrosters in the winter? Would YOU do without them, claiming that you did not need them? Try taking your blower fuses out next winter (if you live where it gets really cold) and see how YOU fare in driving under those conditions, especially if you have loved ones in your vehicle with you! Besides, God knows our needs before we ASK. Notice He did NOT say before we PRAY! There really is a difference! | ||||||
2 | Is James 4:3 completely true? | James 4:3 | DocTrinsograce | 223275 | ||
Dear biblenovice, You wrote, "By stating that there are more than two possible answers to the dilemna I presented, you are asserting that the scriptures are in error on the omission side, by leaving out numerous other possible reasons for the same outcome!" (sic) No, the fault was in your logic and your exegesis of the passage in James. You wrote, "...aren't you stating that the scriptures are NOT error-free, by reason of omission?" (sic) No. You wrote, "How many reasons for NOT receiving what we ASK for were cited in the context of the scripture referenced, which was James 4:3?" (sic) Just the one reason. However, we have more than just this passage from which to learn about prayer. other reasons include: unrepentant about sin (Psalm 66:18; Proverbs 15:29; Isaiah 1:15); being an ungodly husband (1 Peter 3:7); asking for that which is contrary to His will (1 John 5:14); lacking humility (Isaiah 57:15; 1 Peter 5:5); being fleshly minded (Philippians 3:19); etc. You wrote, "The very next verse (James 4:4) completely abandons the subject at hand..." (sic) James is a wisdom book, not a typical epistle. As such it is a compilation of proverbs for the Christian life. You wrote, "If you ask someone to pass the potatoes at the dinner table, are you praying to that person, or just making a simple request?" (sic) Prayer is the ordained means by which we communicate with God. You wrote, "Phillipians 4:19 states that God will supply all our need! Do you think people need heaters or defrosters in the winter? Would YOU do without them, claiming that you did not need them?..." (sic) In every particular circumstance, our reactions manifests who we are (Matthew 15:16-20). Your approach to interpretation of a passage is colored by your experience. Until you learn to start with a sound perspective of the Scriptures, you will continue to have the cart before the horse. Scripture is the ultimate authority by which we see all things... including our experience. Any other approach is specious at best, yielding confusion and bitterness. If you have been saved for 36 years, why still a "biblenovice?" In Him, Doc |
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3 | Is James 4:3 completely true? | James 4:3 | biblenovice | 223290 | ||
Doc, in response to your question, If you have been saved for 36 years, why still a "biblenovice" the simple answer in the amazing INconsistency of other Christians, and their wide-ranging MIS-interpretation of scriptures and postitons on various situations. I will give you some examples. We are all urged to abandon sin, for instance in John 5:14, and in John 8:11, and Ephesians 4:28 (concerning stealing), etc. Jesus Himself was speaking in Mark 10:11-12, concerning adultery. Yet despite those statements, divorce and remarriage to another spouse (while the former spouse is yet still living) run rampant throughout most Christian denominations! Why is that known blatant sin ignored by clergy and fellow Christians alike? Is there somewhere (ANYWHERE) in scripture that marrying another person AFTER being divorced is ACCEPTABLE in any Christian bible? Did Jesus' postion on that situation ever change, that can be proven through scripture? How is it that, what Jesus labeled as adultery, magically got changed to acceptable behavior among Christians? What does Malachi 3:4 say about adulterers? What does 1 Corinthians 6:9 say about adulterers and homosexuals? And what does Hebrews 13:4 say about adulterers? So, with all the inconsistency practiced all around me, by people who act pious and angelic, while clearly living in sin according to Jesus' own words, yes indeed, I do feel like a biblenovice, even after decades of being a practicing Christian! There is at least one translation in which Mary Magdalene called Peter (yes, the leading Apostle) "my brother," but can we prove that those two had the same mother and/or father? Yet I was "reprimanded" for refering to scriptures that say to "rubuke" a "brother," but NOT an unrelated person, right on this forum! Is God supposed to be our source? Read Phil. 4:19! | ||||||
4 | Is James 4:3 completely true? | James 4:3 | DocTrinsograce | 223294 | ||
So, what you are saying, is that Christians actively prevented you from reading the Bible? | ||||||