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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Per 2Thes 2:3 isn't the rapture postrib? | 2 Thess 2:3 | Glen | 20630 | ||
Does the "it" in this verse refer to the "day of the Lord" spoken of in the previous verse (2), and if so, does "it" also refer then to the "coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him" in verse 1? And if all of the above ("it" v3, "day" v2 and "coming" v1) are the same event, how can we say that the rapture,"our gathering together to Him", happens before the tribulation, if according to verse 3 the apostasy and the revelation of the man of lawlessness have to happen first? | ||||||
2 | Per 2Thes 2:3 isn't the rapture postrib? | 2 Thess 2:3 | chris a | 48337 | ||
Glen, I don't believe the 'it' refers to the coming of the Lord and our gathering together with Him. The two (rapture and Day of the Lord) are not at the same time. Why did the believers lose their 'composure' when they heard that the Day of the Lord had started? The only logical answer I know is that they expected to be 'raptured' BEFORE the Day of the Lord. Also notice that the Day of the Lord is not until the lawless one is revealed, but in v7, Paul states that the lawless one will NOT be revealed until the Restrainer is removed. I believe the Restrainer is the Holy Spirit and I believe that the Holy Spirit will be removed when the rapture occurs; because if the Holy Spirit is removed but believers remain, they will be defenseless against the schemes of the devil. Therefore the rapture (removal of the Restrainer) must be before the Day of the Lord. Although it may sound otherwise, I am anything but dogmatic with regards to this interpretaiton, if you see problems with it, please let me know. I'm open on the issue!! GOD bless!! chris |
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