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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does "emptied Himself" really mean | Phil 2:7 | kalos | 173760 | ||
THE KENOSIS OF CHRIST Statement: CP1207 (Source: www.equip.org/free/CP1207.htm) 'It’s popular today to say that Jesus in the Incarnation was fully man, but certainly not fully God. In discussing the doctrine of the Incarnation (God the Son in human flesh), Philippians 2:7 says that Jesus “emptied himself.” Does this mean that Jesus was not 100 percent God as well as 100 percent man? 'While historic Christianity has always affirmed that Jesus Christ was both fully God and fully man, some have argued that in order for Jesus to have been truly human He must have divested Himself of certain divine attributes. In fact, those who affirm this very novel view nearly always appeal to Philippians 2:5-7. Which, by the way, says, “Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but he emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men.” The words “emptied Himself” are interpreted by a growing number of people today to mean that Christ actually laid aside certain divine attributes. But is this correct? Well as a matter of fact, it’s not. 'To say that Jesus surrendered even one divine attribute is to say that Jesus is less than God, and therefore not God at all! See, if God is deprived of even one attribute, then He is not fully deity. Of course references to his deity abound in Scripture (John 1:1; 20:28; Rom. 9:5; Col. 2:9; Tit. 2:13; Heb. 1:8). And by the way, this is not only affirmed by the Bible, it’s clearly affirmed by the creeds. 'Of course the question is asked: If Jesus didn’t give up His deity, then what did Christ empty Himself of? Well the context indicates very clearly that Jesus veiled His glory as a sign of his humility. He voluntarily makes Himself of no reputation. He sets aside His high position and waves His divine prerogatives because He loves us. But while Christ surrenders His divine glory, he does not surrender His divine attributes.' (Source: www.equip.org/free/CP1207.htm) |
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2 | What does "emptied Himself" really mean | Phil 2:7 | DocTrinsograce | 173774 | ||
Dear Brother Kalos, Very good post! Jordan Barret wrote something quite similar. It might be helpful to add his particular spin to the question of kenosis: "What has come to be called 'Kenotic theology' attempts to understand the incarnation of the second person of the Trinity in light of the kenosis of Phillippians 2:7. Its aim is to solve some of the supposed paradoxes arising from Jesus having both a divine nature and a human nature. For example, how could an all knowing God become a baby, how could God be tempted, or how could Jesus (being God) not know the time of His return? "The danger comes when it is concluded that in the incarnation, the second person of the Trinity took on human nature AND gave up or lost some of the divine attributes -- such that Jesus was not fully divine. The doctrine of the two natures of Christ (known as the hypostatic union) maintains that Jesus possessed a full undiminished human nature and a full undiminished divine nature, which were not combined or confused into some new nature but were added to each other forever (yet remaining distinct) in the one person Jesus Christ. "The question regarding the kenosis comes to this -- What does it mean when Scripture says Christ 'emptied' Himself? Did Jesus cease to be God during His earthly ministry? Certainly not, for deity cannot stop being deity or He would never have been true deity to begin with. Rather, the 'emptying' is satisfactorily explained in the subsequent words of the verse, taking note of the two participles which grammatically modify and explain the verb: He emptied himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. This emptying, in fact, was done as the man Christ Jesus, and neither of these ideas necessitates or implies the giving up of divine attributes." "Christianity maintains that Jesus did not 'empty' himself of any of his divinity in the incarnation, although it is true that his divine attributes were veiled. When the Kenosis theory concludes that Jesus is or was less than God (as has been the case in the past), it is regarded as heresy." In Him, Doc |
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3 | Does 'veiled' mean 'not used'? | Phil 2:7 | RWC | 173852 | ||
You quote Barret as writing: "The danger comes when it is concluded that in the incarnation, the second person of the Trinity took on human nature AND gave up or lost some of the divine attributes -- such that Jesus was not fully divine." I would absolutely agree with that statement. But is it not possible for Jesus to have set aside *the use* of His attributes of divine nature? Is that not what Barret means when he writes (as you quoted him): "Christianity maintains that Jesus did not 'empty' himself of any of his divinity in the incarnation, although it is true that his divine attributes were veiled"? I would agree that these attributes were at all times in His possession, but that they were veiled (hidden) and that Jesus willing chose not to make use of them (with perhaps a very few purposeful exceptions) from the point of His conception until His resurrection. I am further suggesting that this is what this verse is talking about when it speaks of His humility in emptying Himself. |
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4 | Does 'veiled' mean 'not used'? | Phil 2:7 | DocTrinsograce | 173854 | ||
Dear RWC, In the concept of "use" as you are employing the term, is the notion of discretionary application. For example, I have the attribute of mobility. In order to respond to you, I am not making use of that attribute. We actually see examples in Christ's life where He did not exercise His divine perogative. This revealed other attributes, including, humility, meekness, and longsuffering. However, I think you came closer to the truth when you used the word "veil (hidden)." Look at the following passages: He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, yet the world did not know Him. (John 1:10 ESV) I myself did not know Him, but He who sent me to baptize with water said to me, 'He on whom you see the Spirit descend and remain, this is He who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.' (John 1:33 ESV) They said to him therefore, "Where is your Father?" Jesus answered, "You know neither me nor my Father. If you knew me, you would know my Father also." (John 8:19 ESV) For those who live in Jerusalem and their rulers, because they did not recognize Him nor understand the utterances of the prophets, which are read every Sabbath, fulfilled them by condemning Him. (Acts 13:27 ESV) Who Christ was -- His glory, that is the full manifestation of His nature -- was hidden from the world. (Even today, the only ones who recognize Him for who He is are His own (Hebrews 8:11).) It takes a work of the Holy Spirit to begin to grasp who He is. He has yet to appear in all His glory for everyone to see (Matthew 24:30). Even then, though, all men will know who He is, but only the redeemed will be able to appreciate the full resplendence of His glory. In Him, Doc |
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