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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does "emptied Himself" really mean | Phil 2:7 | RWC | 4905 | ||
What does "emptied Himself" really mean? (This question comes from a discussion on Heb. 4.15) I tend to think that when Jesus was incarnated (became a human being) that He set aside the _use_ of most (if not all) of His divine power. That does not mean that He was any less divine, but simply that He chose not to use the power and ability that was His. I think that when He became a human being, He made Himself completely dependant upon the Holy Spirit and that the works that He did were, for the most part at least and perhaps even totally, done in the power of the Holy Spirit. He is, after all, our example. I am convinced that Jesus was and is the Living God wrapped in humanity. At no time did He cease to be God. But it seems to me that in order for Him to truely experience life as a human being requires that He must have set aside (not used) most if not all of His own powers and abilities. That is how He could experience real hunger. That is how He could experience real fatigue. That is how He could experience real pain. That is why we can find Jesus not knowing certain things. And that is why we can find Jesus being truely tempted (and thus the discussion on Heb. 4.15). I am not so convinced that this view is correct that I would say that it was a definite doctrine (teaching) of the Scripture. But I _tend_ toward thinking that this might well be the truth. Your comments and or subsequent questions would be very much appreciated. |
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2 | What does "emptied Himself" really mean | Phil 2:7 | Morant61 | 4908 | ||
Greetings RWC! I think you have made some excellent points. Phil. 2:5-11 never says that Jesus ceased to be God. It does say, however, that a change occurred in His status. He 'emptied Himself' by, according to Phil. 2:7, "....taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness." Therefore, the 'emptying of Himself' refers to the fact that He did not grasp or hold on to the rank and privilege that He had as God, but took upon Himself a real, human nature. He became fully man and fully God at the same time. I like the way 2 Cor. 8:9 puts it: "For you know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though he was rich, yet for your sakes he became poor, so that you through his poverty might become rich." However, I believe that Jesus became fully human in the way that Adam was created. In other words, you can't really compare the humanity of Christ with fallen humanity. He always knew who He was and what He was doing. He was always aware of His Father's presence. So, He wasn't human in exactly the same sense that we are human. He was perfect and sinless, we aren't. I think this is the reason why we have such a hard time understanding His humanity. Thanks for the question. Tim Moran |
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3 | What does "emptied Himself" really mean | Phil 2:7 | RWC | 4979 | ||
Yes, thank you for making the point about Jesus' humanity being like Adam's (and Eve's!) prior to their initial sin. That is how I have come to understand this as well, but I didn't make that clear (at least in that posting). Jesus did not and does not have a sin nature. And His fellowship with God must have been very similar indeed to that experienced by Adam and Eve prior to sin entering the human race. | ||||||
4 | Could Jesus like Adam have sinned? | Phil 2:7 | wdc | 4996 | ||
Does this mean that Jesus could have sinned? If He was like Adam before the fall, then He must have had the capacity to sin if He had chosen to. In John, we read these verses. (John 5:19) Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise. (John 6:38) For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. (John 5:30) I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me. In these verse's, and many others, it sounds like Jesus is walking by and being lead by the Spirit just like we are, only He obeyed everytime. Some say it was not possible for Him to sin, I tend to believe that He could have, just like Adam. The Bible even likens Jesus to Adam: (1 Cor 15:45) And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit. What do you think, could He have sinned or not? later...wdc |
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5 | Could Jesus like Adam have sinned? | Phil 2:7 | RWC | 5043 | ||
Well, now you have hit on the question that I asked regarding Heb. 4.15. If you have not already done so, you should read through the discussion on that verse. You may find that whole discussion quite intersting. (I have!) I hesitate to say that Jesus could actually have disobeyed, and yet, to be honest, I suppose that this is exactly what I tend to think. His temptations were, I am convinced, real temptations, of the same nature that Adam experienced. But His character (being God) was such that disobedience seems totally inconcieveable. Read through that discussion, and let know your comments. |
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