Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Speak in tongue to himself and God? | 1 Cor 14:28 | David Yew | 149774 | ||
Hi Tim, I believe our contention is on 14:28 and the first "and", which is "and let him speak to himself and to God". Based on most Greek translation, this may be a literal word for word translation. http://www.greeknewtestament.com/B46C014.htm#V28 "If and no is interpreter keep silent in church and speak also the God." Notice that I did not punctuate the sentence. Will this make sense? Paul address the speaking in tongue and not interpreting it as a) v2. Not to men but to god for no man can understand b) v7-11 Speaking in tongue has meaning and without meaning. He uses 2 analogies to explain that. The speaker speaking into the air. So with these in mind, would Paul acknowledge that speaking in tongue without interpretation has value? Thus v28, would not make sense to have the speaker to speak to God. The word "speak" has meaning of the speaker has understand his speech. What I understand is the tongue referred in 1 Cor 12-14 is definitely the same tongue in Acts 2. It is a known human language. As quoted 14:21, it is a sign for the unbelievers. All 3 accounts in Acts on speaking in tongues has got this effect of reaching to the unbelievers. 14:23-25 seemed not to gel with 14:21 But you may noticed that the tongues in 14:21 has shifted as a prophesy! Instead of the people not hearing / believe God, the gift of tongues and prophesy brings this effect of reaching to the people and bring them words of conviction and the gospel! I am sorry if I may have confused you, I am not in the best position to explain this verse thoroughly. Hope the explanation helps. David Love - An intelligent willingness to do what is best of the other person. |
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2 | Speak in tongue to himself and God? | 1 Cor 14:28 | Morant61 | 149802 | ||
Greetings David! Allow me to touch upon a couple of your points. First of all, in your translation, you left out two imporant words ('to yourself', and 'to God'). So, the literal translation of v. 28 should read: "If and no there is an interpreter, let him keep silent in church, but let him speak to himself and to God." 'To himself' and 'to God' are both direct objects of 'speak', which is a command. Therefore, I would also question some of your exgesis of the passage. Paul is not arguing that uninterpreted tongues is bad, but that interpreted tongues is better. Verse 11 makes the point of his two illustrations quite clear - it is important to understand the meaning of what is said. Paul then goes on to stress the importance of interpreting the tongue so that others may give thanks and praise with you. However, v. 28 deals with the situation when there is no interpreter present. In this case, the speaker is no keep silent publically, and speak to himself and to God. This is a command. However one cut's it, it is quite clear that v. 28 refers to 'speaking to himself and to God'. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Shall we read together? | 1 Cor 14:28 | David Yew | 149809 | ||
Hi Tim, Jus curious if you read the greek translation here: http://www.greeknewtestament.com/B46C014.htm#V28 I don't deny that the translation in many versions has the sentence which you have quoted. But I am refering to the Greek text, I just took up Greek recently, seems easy, just 24 characters. I believe you will come to the same word to word translate from the Greek text. And as said, I am not a Master in Greek, thus, I do humbly accept the text as it is. As you have said it correctly, Paul says that it is important to understand the meaning of what is said. He even mentioned the exact process in 14:27 - "One MUST interpret". Let us see the passage together. I hope that you may find the tone of this chapter as well. A) v5-12 A paragraph that Paul desire the Corinthians to seek prophesy. "what will I profit you" v5 "NOW" - He concluded something above, prophesy is the greater gift. "BUT EVEN MORE" - His emphasis to seek prophesy. B) v13-20 In the practising of the usage of the tongue (in exercising of the gift), one must consider the fellow men around him. Paul never fail to emphasize on unity and the purpose of gifts (12:7). "seek to abound for the edification of the church" C) v21-25 In exercising of the gift for speaking conviction to the unbelievers. D) v26-33 Instructions when gathering as a body. And again "Let all things be done for edification." Paul also mention about uninterpreted tongues - v9 "SO also you, unless you utter by the tongue speech that is clear, how will it BE KNOWN what is spoken? FOR you will be speaking into the air." You may note that he is emphaizing the need to understand the spoken tongue FOR THE HEARER. Even to Paul, uninterpreted tongue is meaningless, is "like talking into the air". So, I suggest that 14:2, 28, the word "God" may be as "god" as it mean nothing to the speaker or to God when somebody utter things that he has no understanding of what utterances he has made. Perhaps you like to suggest what "Therefore" v13,23,39, "So, also you," v9,12, would have meant ya? God bless! David Love - An intelligent willingness to do what is best for the other person. |
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4 | Shall we read together? | 1 Cor 14:28 | Morant61 | 149812 | ||
Greetings David! The Greek text at your web site is exactly the same as the Greek text in my Greek New Testament! ;-) The translation I provided is a word for word literal translation of that text. As far as your exgesis my friend, nothing you have said contervenes the fact that the text 'commands' the individual to speak to himself and to God if there is no interpreter present. We can debate all day whether or not an 'uninterpreted' tongue has any value, but the command is still in the text. :-) We agree that Paul encourages the interpretation of tongues that the whole body might be edified. However, he also gives specific instructions about what to do if no interpreter is present. As for you point about 'God' or 'god', how does the lack of an interpreter change the meaning of 'God'? p.s. - Don't let the 24 letters fool you! :-) Greek is easy in the sense that it tends to be much more regular and precise than English. However, there is a vast quality to Greek that can be quite tricky as well. But, it is an excellent study for anyone interested in Scripture. I pray that God will bless your studies! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | Shall we read together? | 1 Cor 14:28 | David Yew | 149817 | ||
Hi Tim, Wow! So you are online now ya? I'm about to sleep. Hmmm, it seems funny as if really word for word would have the clause "to man". "ean de me o diermeneutes sigao en ekklesia eauto de laleito kai to theo" "If and no is interpreter keep silent in church he(himself) and speak also the god(deity)" I am saying about be exacting... hope this don't offend you. I am no Master in this and I am thankful for your enlightenment and sharing of this verse. Personally, I see the differences about using "God" or "god" due to my interpretation of this verse in keeping consistency from 14:1 till now. I'll keep this in mind and to understand Paul's address on this. May the Holy Spirit grant me wisdom and understanding on this. I love God's word, ha! So I want to come to the original feel of the words to me more than from the English Bible. I wish I could read the Bible in Greek like you one day! Yes! It can be done... hopefully soon! :) Thanks! David Love - An intelligent willingness to do what is best for the other person. |
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6 | Shall we read together? | 1 Cor 14:28 | Morant61 | 149822 | ||
Greetings David! I'm getting read to sleep as well! I work third shift, so I sleep during the day! :-( I gather from one of your other posts that English is a second language for you! If so, you should be able to learn Greek fairly quickly. :-) Where did you get 'to man' in the Greek? Allow me to touch upon the translation you have listed here again. 1) The 'de' always occurs second in the sentence or clause. It can be 'and' or 'but'. 2) The 'sigao' is a third person, singular, imperative. They are normally translated as 'let him'. So, 'let him keep silent' would be the literal translation. 3) Where you seem to be messing up is the last clause, after 'church'. It should read: "...and let him speak TO HIMSELF and TO GOD". Finally, 'being precise' never offends me my friend! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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