Results 1 - 3 of 3
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Searching for the truth | Rom 5:13 | Morant61 | 104377 | ||
Greetings FytRobert! I believe that the context indicates that there is no congradiction between these two verses. Rom. 1-3 speaks of those who 'have' and those who do not 'have' the Law - i.e. Jews and Gentiles. But, the Law is in existence. Rom. 5:13 contrasts the time before the Law was given and the time after the Law was given. With this in mind, consider Rom. 3:19-20: "Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be silenced and the whole world held accountable to God. 20 Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin." So, Rom. 5:13 and Rom. 4:15 both seem to be saying that one cannot be held accountable for breaking a Law which is not in existence, but those in Rom. 2 can be held accountable for breaking a Law which is in existence even though they do not accept it. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
2 | Searching for the truth | Rom 5:13 | EdB | 104550 | ||
Tim But your not saying there wasn't sin before the law, just that there wasn't a specific law that was broken and sin still reigned in man. EdB |
||||||
3 | Searching for the truth | Rom 5:13 | Morant61 | 104560 | ||
Greetings EdB! Correct! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||