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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Where would there be no transgression? | Rom 4:15 | Searcher56 | 112838 | ||
Scripture ... Rom 3:20, 4:15, 5:12-14, 7:7 ... There was no transgression of the Law, but there was sin. Obsevering the Law doesn't get one declared one righteous ... it just makes one consious of sin. Before the (Mosaic) Law, there was sin, because of Adam ... and death reigned (remember the flood and Sodom). |
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2 | Where would there be no transgression? | Rom 4:15 | Mommapbs | 112866 | ||
Greetings searcher, we do agree. We are accountable. Revisiting Romans 5:13 sin was present even though the written law was not. Prior to the law being given . . ."For even though they knew God, they did not honor Him as God or give thanks, but they became futile in their speculations," Rom 1:21 transgression is against the knowledge of God. Where would there be no transgression? How about when in all our ways we acknowledge Him! (Prov 3:5)I also found this in Gal 5:22-23 "love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness,gentleness, self-control; against such things there is no law." Therefore there would be no transgression here either! Blessings, mommapbs speculations and every lofty thing raised up against the knowledge of God, 2Cor 10:5 |
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