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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Need interpretation for these verses | Rom 2:12 | eascusa | 217737 | ||
I have two particular passages in the bible I need interpretation for. Can someone explain to me what they mean? Thankyou so much. 1. Romans 2:12 and 14 15 16 'All who sin apart from the law will also perish part from the law and all who sin under the law will be judged by the law AND 2. 1 Corinthians 5:5 ....hand this man over to Satan, so that the sinful nature will be destroyed and his spirit saved on the day of the Lord' What does he mean hand him over to Stan? And why would that destroy his sin but instead make it worse? The his spirit will be saved after he was handed over to Satan? I don't understand. |
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2 | Need interpretation for these verses | Rom 2:12 | dwilliamson | 217738 | ||
Hello eascusa Hope you dont mind if I answer these questions in 2 separate notes, one for each question. As to question 1. The context of Romans 2 is important to the understanding of these verses I believe. In Romans Ch1v18-3v20 Paul is showing that all people, whatever their background, are "guilty before God" (Romans 3v20). He first deals with the Gentile world in its idolatery etc in Ch1v18-32 and shows how they have rejected the witness of God in Creation - thus they are guilty. Then I believe (some people may have a slightly different understanding than this) he deals with self-righteous people whether Jew or Gentile Ch2v1-16. Then finally, from Ch2v17 through to Ch3v20 he deals with the Jew exclusively, giving a final summing up in the last few verses. Now, in the section of which you speak there are 2 types of people considered - the Jew and the Gentile. The Gentile is "apart from the law" in the sense that the law was not given to him as it was to the nation of Israel. The Jew however doess have the law. How will God deal righteously in judging both? Those who have not the law will not be judged by the law per se, but rather because they have not responded to the entreaties of their Conscience - see v15 "Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another". On the other hand, those who do have the law will be judged by their response to the Commandments contained in it which they were aware of and still refuse to obey. Hope this is helpful In Him David |
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3 | Need interpretation for these verses | Rom 2:12 | dwilliamson | 217739 | ||
Hello again eascusa As to question 2. In 1 Corinthians Ch 5 Paul is writing concerning how discipline should be carried out in the local church. The person who has sinned in this chapter is a person who was in the fellowship of the local church - a place of privilege and protection. Because of the severe nature of the sin committed, he is to be excommunicated from that fellowship - see v13 "put away from among yourselves that wicked person". Now, in putting such a person away from the church I believe they are "delivering him unto Satan" in the sense that he is put out into the sphere where Satan has control - i.e. the world. God who judges those who are without (see v13) uses even the attacks of Satan to discipline his people in order that they be restored to fellowhip first with God Himself and then with the church. So, what is intended result from this discipline? The answer is "for the destruction of the flesh" i.e. So that the fleshly nature which has so taken over the life of this believer might be nullified in its power over him. And "the spirit saved in the day of the Lord Jesus" i.e. That his spiritual life might be recovered in view of the Judgment seat of Christ. Again hope this is helpful. In Him David PS. I should note that the translation I have used is the KJV. |
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