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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Acts 2:33 (*Promise*) | Acts 2:33 | logix | 72698 | ||
Shalom, I have breifly considered the rendering of Acts 2:33, in both the KJV and the NASB, and have come to believe that perhaps a better translation of this verse is needed. There are three reasons I believe a better translation could be needed. I will explain each seperatley. But first, the verse, as it is written in the NASB. "Therefore having been exalted to the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He has poured forth this which you both see and hear." Acts 2:33 The three reasons for changing this verse would be, 1) Hebrew idiom (concerning Father and Holy Spirit) 2) Emphesis of the *promise* in English is on the Holy Spirit. 3) The translation is incorrectly written in past tense. I will briefly cover each of these subjects, begining with: 1) Hebrew idiom- The jews believe that the Holy Spirit is non other than God himself. They do not associate another person with the Holy Spirit, instead they believe Holy Spirit simply refers to the empowering aspect of God, or the Father. Therefore it would not be uncommon for a jew to say something along the lines of, God the Father, that Holy Spirit! This becomes important in view of: 2) Emphesis of the *promise* in English is on the Holy Spirit-An english reader of this verse has the impression that the "promise" spoken about here, by Peter, refers to the Holy Spirit. This is because the translators of this verse did not take into account the Hebrew mindset, which would have been comfortable saying, Father, Holy Spirit! I believe the emphesis of *promise* here does not refer to the Holy Spirit, but instead to the EXALTATION of Jesus. My 'prof' for this is, that Jesus recieved the promise of the Holy Spirit at baptism and later, promised the Holy Spirit to his disciples, after he had been exalted. Peter here refers to the promised exaltation of Jesus, which the Father, that Holy Spirit, had promised him. 3) The translation is incorrectly written in past tense- Usually if in Greek the Aorist tense (which is neither past nor present) is used, then in English it is translated as past tense; this most often does not cause a problem. Here it may cause a problem. It may cause a problem because the first two lines of the verse are written in the Aorist tense, while the last phrase, "He has poured forth what you see and hear" is written in the Greek present. But in English the whole verse is rendered in the past tense. Therefore Peter apears to be saying that Jesus has poured forth the Holy Spirit, when infact Jesus has not poured, but is pouring forth his spirit; he pours his spirit even as we speak! With these things in mind I believe a better transliteration might be, Being exalted to the honor (or title of) of God, recieving the promise (or promised exaltation) of the [Father, Holy Spirit!], He now pours (or is pouring) forth these things which you see and hear. With the commentary it is rendered: Being exalted to the title of God, recieving the promised exaltation of the [Father, Holy Spirit!], He is now pouring forth these things which you see and hear. I believe Acts 2 verses 34 and 36 also go to verifying my hypothesis, as both these verses speak of the exaltation. "For David himself never ASCENDED into heaven........." first part of Acts 2:34 (Emphesis added) "So let it be clearly known by everyone in Israel that God has made this Jesus whom you crucified to be both LORD (right hand of God) and Messiah!" Acts 2:36 (comentary and Emphesis added) This idea is not with out its faults, I do not pretend to know 'the' answer. All of my statements are subject to error, may God guide us in truth. Amen. |
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2 | Acts 2:33 (*Promise*) | Acts 2:33 | Jacoba | 72744 | ||
Psalm 119:130 I'm definitely a layperson, but as a Christian, I pray that God will give us necessary insight. Christians also believe that the Holy Spirit is none other but God himself. We believe that Jehovah is the Holy Trinity--three distinct but not separate persons--Father-creator, Son-redeemer, Holy Spirit-sanctifier. We cannot live a Christian life, indeed cannot even believe without the Holy Spirit's indwelling. The concept of Holy Trinity is difficult and cannot be treated correctly or completely by human mind, but in Luke 24:45-49 the risen (but not yet ascended) Christ Jesus opened the disciples' minds to understand the Scriptures [and instructs them]....Behold, I send the Promise of My Father upon you; but tarry in the city of Jerusalem until you are endued with power from on high." In his Pentecostal speech, Peter was telling the new Christians that what Jesus had said previously was true, and the enduing of the Holy Spirit had manifested itself therein. The enduing of the Holy Spirit of the Christians that day was evidence that God the Father's promise was fulfilled in Jesus's exaltation. Jesus was exalted, and then he sent the Holy Spirit to them. Thus the use of the past tense. We must remember that Peter speaking to his hearers about the miracle of speaking in tongues, and he was at the point in his speech where he is talking to his audience about David (Acts 2:29). He was saying, not so much that David never ascended into heaven as that the patriarch David who died was not as great as his descendant Jesus Christ who died, rose and ascended and resumed his deity as the second person in the Holy Trinity. David knew that he was subordinate, and in Acts 2:34 Peter reminded his hearers that David called his descendant Jesus, Lord (Psalm 110:1). I think this verse also speaks favorably to the fact that David's soul is with God in heaven, with respect to Romans 10:9. Truly God continues to sanctify us, but the saving work of Jesus was a necessary, and complete preamble to entitle his adopted brothers and sisters to the gifts of the Holy Spirit. |
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3 | Acts 2:33 (*Promise*) | Acts 2:33 | logix | 72755 | ||
I agree with what you have said. My only contention then is that in "this" verse Peter refers to the promise, in my view, as the exaltation. This is not to say that also here Peter does not refer to the promised Holy Spirit, he most definitley does; it is what causes the people to see and hear what they do. I am saying that the time line of this verse appears to be wrong. Jesus "recieved" the Holy Spirit at batism. He ascended and was exalted after raising from the dead and speaking with the disciples. So it appears there are at least two promises made to Jesus, who for a time humbled himself, even below the angels. My view is best summed as: Jesus who was promised both the Holy Spirit, which he recieved at baptism, and the Exaltation, has now recieved the second promise, the exaltation, and therefore now gives to us his promise, that being, the Holy Spirit. Shalom |
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