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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217674 | ||
BradK I believe that the "sign gifts" are no longer active today. However, without trying to bring you off on a tangent here - Could you clarify/qualify the statement you have made "Christ was limited while on earth"? Thanks David |
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2 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | BradK | 217675 | ||
Hi David, Time limits me:-) He was limited to a fleshly body, so that He wasn't omnipresent while on earth. He also limited His attributes of Diety (Phil 2:6-8). It's important to say in doing so, He in no way became less than God or ever ceased being God! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217677 | ||
Dear BradK I am sorry to have to disagree with you on both counts. I am in work presently and dont have the time either to discuss this very important question at the moment but possibly another thread should be started on this. Briefly. I don't believe that we can say that the Lord had limited attributes of Deity upon earth - to have limited attributes of Deity is necessarily to be less than God. The attributes of Deity are what mark God out to be Who He is! So if a Person is not Omniscient, Omnipresent, Omnipotent, Eternal etc we can safely say that such is not God. Philippians 2 must be kept in its context. There are a number of examples in that chapter of "the mind of Christ" - Paul is seeking to inculcate an ATTITUDE within the church at Philippi and he gives examples of that attitude. What is that attitude? "look not every man on his own things but every man also on the things of other". It is an attitude whereby we seek the benefit of others. Now how does this apply to the Lord? He is eternally "in the form of God", personally He cannot change but He does change His position. Knowing all that He is, recognising that He is equal with God in position, He "empties Himself" - this cannot be of Deity or He is not God - the point is simply that He does not act for Himself but rather for others! This stoop for the benefit of others is then described in the further statements "took upon Him the form of a servant etc..." Personally I would appeal - Do not read into Philippians 2 more than what is intended in the context. How could our Lord be an example by the setting aside of attributes? He is an example because, although He IS what He is, He is willing to stoop to think upon "the things of others". Another statement you have made is "He was limited to a fleshly body, so that He wasnt omnipresent while on earth". Can I ask - when God lived among men in the Tabernacle in the wilderness "within the veil, between the 2 cherubim" did that mean that He was not Omnipresent? Did that mean He was nowhere else? "The Word was God...the Word became flesh and tabernacled among us" (John 1). Not meaning to cause any arguments on this most sacred of subjects - the Person of Christ - but I do feel we need to be careful limiting Him in any way. One final thing - I know that there are Scriptures which are often quoted at this point which appear to limit Him - these again must be read in their context and against the background of the clear teaching of Scripture that Christ is God. In Him David |
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4 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | Morant61 | 217679 | ||
Greetings David! Concerning the limitations of Christ during His incarnation, Matthew 24:36 is quite clear: "‘No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.'" So, Christ clearly was not omniscient during His incarnation. In a similar vein, Luke 2:52 says of Christ: "And Jesus grew in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men." If Christ were omniscient during His incarnation, He could not grow in wisdom. Just a few thoughts for consideration! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217680 | ||
Hello Tim, I thought that these might come up! As to the Matt 24v36 passage - I'll get back to you later as I'm not at home at the min. As to the Luke 2v52 passage I have no problems at all. Wisdom is the practical application of knowledge. The Lord grew in the experiential application of knowledge throughout His pathway upon earth. There are things that were not experienced prior to His coming that He experienced upon earth - we know that from the Hebrew epistle. You are aware that it has now been stated that the One Who is "God with us" (Matt 1) was not omnipresent and was not omniscient. At this rate it will not be long before someone declares that He was not eternal or omnipotent. And then I ask you (I speak as a fool) is He God at all? I submit that when the Lord became incarnate He was not God minus anything, He was God plus holy humanity. That is the way Scripture speaks of His incarnation. (Heb 2, Matt 1, Luke 1, Romans 9 etc). Will post later DV. In Him David |
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6 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | AWilliamson | 217682 | ||
Now for the Matt 24v36 passage. 1. You will note that the expression "neither the Son" is omitted from the KJV/NKJV versions in Matt 24v36 and I believe it should be. 2. The word "neither the Son" ARE however found in Marks Gospel Ch13v32 and the reason why I believe this is the case I have noted below. We have been given 4 Gospel records, each with a particular purpose (as most will know). Matthew presents the Lord as King/Messiah, Mark as Servant, Luke as Man, John as Son of God. In the Gospel of Mark the Lord Jesus is presented to us as the perfect Servant and that is why I believe this expression is recorded there. In John 15v15 we read these words "...the servant knoweth not what his master doeth...". When the Lord said that, what He was saying is that it is not the servants PLACE to know such things. Now, I believe that this is the position the Lord takes up in Mark 13v32. He is the Servant - as such He has been given certain truths to reveal by the Father, this He does perfectly. But, when it comes to "the day or hour" He does not know in the sense that it is not His place to know as a Servant. I want to quote William MacDonald if I may: "It is well known that this verse has been used by enemies of the gospel to prove that Jesus was nothing more than a man with limited knowledge like ourselves. It has also been used by sincere but misguided believers to demonstrate that Jesus emptied Himself of the attributes of Deity when He came into the world as a man. Neither of these interpretations is true. Jesus was and is both God and Man. He had all the attributes of Deity and all the characteristics of perfect manhood. It is true that His Deity was veiled in a body of flesh, but it was there nonetheless. There was never a time when He was not fully God." (William MacDonald, Believers Bible Commentary, Pg1357). To use this one verse as a basis for an argument against the Lord Jesus possessing the full attributes of deity is in my opinion very unwise. Hope this hs helpful to some. In Him David |
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7 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | AWilliamson | 217683 | ||
Oh dear - using my brothers computer again at home, don't know why it doesnt come up as dwilliamson...very sorry. This is David. (dwilliamson). | ||||||
8 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | AWilliamson | 217697 | ||
Hello folks, This is Andrew. Just to say that david signed in on the computer that I use, he signed in under his own password but for some reason when he posts it comes up as my user name?! There seems to be some computer glitch. Sorry about this, will try to see that it doesn't happen again. Andrew |
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9 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | Medchill | 217701 | ||
I think the issue is with two users using the same computer. If you two open two different browsers and do not log off, the posts will appear under the last one in. | ||||||