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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | child made during adultry | John 3:16 | Morant61 | 166896 | ||
Greetings Brad! Well said, my friend! When we speak of an unlimited atonement, we are speaking of the once and for all nature of Christ's death upon the cross that paid the price for every sin of every person.. However, that precious gift must still be received. Romans 5:17 puts it this way, "For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man, how much more will those who receive God’s abundant provision of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man, Jesus Christ." Christ's gift is unlike Adam's sin in that it must be received. Keep up the good work my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | child made during adultry | John 3:16 | DocTrinsograce | 166898 | ||
Dear Tim, Good definition... but... neither of the theological perspectives of unlimited atonement or definite atonement include in their defintions anything about the sufficiency of Christ's atonement. Unlimited and definite atonement speak to the question "for whom did Christ die?" Unlimited atonement is a doctrine of Amyraldism and Arminianism. Definite atonement (or particular redemption) is a doctrine endemic to Reformed theology. What Brad so aptly defined, as he said, was the doctrine of the sufficiency of the atonement of Christ in the redemption of the believer. He can correct me if I misunderstood. In Him, Doc |
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