Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Father greater than Jesus | John 14:28 | CDBJ | 130797 | ||
Whose blood is the following verse talking about, or how would you explain it away if it isn’t the actual blood of Jesus and thus being the blood of God? Acts 20:28 Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood. CDBJ |
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2 | Father greater than Jesus | John 14:28 | thisbabbler | 130865 | ||
The Good News Bible-Today's English Version in the latter part of the verse reads: “the blood of his own [Son].” Although the 1953 printing of Revised Standard Version RS reads “with his own blood,” the 1971 edition reads “with the blood of his own Son.” The Emphasised Bible (1897), Joseph B. Rotherham simply reads “the blood of his own.” Which rendering(s) agree with 1 John 1:7, which says: “The blood of Jesus his [God’s] Son cleanses us from all sin”? (See also Revelation 1:4-6.) As stated in John 3:16, did God send his only-begotten Son, or did he himself come as a man, so that we might have life? It was the blood, not of God, but of his Son that was poured out. So whose blood was Paul referring to? God's son, Jesus Christ, of course. Nothing in Paul's letters indicates that he thought otherwise. "May the God who gives endurance and encouragement give you a spirit of unity among yourselves as you follow Christ Jesus, so that with one heart and mouth you may glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ." (Rom 15:5,6) |
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3 | Father greater than Jesus | John 14:28 | Morant61 | 130878 | ||
Greetings Babbler! The only problem with your explanation is that there is not a single Greek manuscript that includes the word 'son' in Acts 20:27 or Acts 20:28. People have added the word 'son' because they do not want to accept the clear implications of the verse. If we can simply add words to Scripture anytime we don't agree with it, we can make Scripture say anything. :-( Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Father greater than Jesus | John 14:28 | Mary01 | 130906 | ||
Tim, I have no idea why, but I do wonder why the 1971 edition of the Revised Standard Version changed it's rendering to his own Son? Do they place the word "Son" in brackets showing that it's there just for clearity? or as a part of their actual translation? Mary |
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5 | Father greater than Jesus | John 14:28 | Morant61 | 130910 | ||
Greetings Mary! Usually brackets indicate a word that is not in the actual text. I can't speak for the publishers of the 1971 RSV, but that is usually the case. At best, it is an interpretative addition. There are so many verses that clearly speak of Jesus as being God. Yet, among many liberal theologians, the usual comment goes something like this: "This would be a strong statement concerning the Deity of Christ, but since the rest of the New Testament doesn't state it this strongly, we have opted for the weaker statement!" :-) Of course, if they didn't water down the clear meaning in each case, the NT would make a stronger statement! :) This is just one of many places where Paul calls Jesus, God! Others include: 1) Rom. 9:5 - "Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of Christ, who is God over all, forever praised! Amen." 2) Col. 2:9 - "For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form" 3) Titus 2:13 - "while we wait for the blessed hope—the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ" and the great passages of Col. 1:15-20 and Phil. 2:5-11. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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