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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | 2,000 years not enough to "know" God? | John 13:33 | 00123 | 232755 | ||
Ed., So, why do you say "see" means "know" in John 1:18? In the Bible, the word "see" (Strong 3708) was never used in a meaning of other than "see with eyes." horaô; a prim. vb.; to see, perceive, attend to:--appear(2), appeared(21), appearing(1), behold(3), beware(1), certainly seen(1), do(2), look(5), look after(1), looked(12), perceive(3), recognizing(1), saw(180), see(129), seeing(20), seen(63), seen...see(1), sees(2), suffer(1), undergo(3), underwent(1), watch(2), witnessed(1). Here one question is that if, as you said, a believer went up to the Lord immediately after death, the Bible heroes before Jesus saw God minimally for 2,012 years. If "see" means "know" in John 1:18, is that 2,000 or more years not enough to "know" God? Of course, I admit God is such an amazing being, but my point is face-to-face fellowship with God over 2,000 years must be qualified to say we "know" God rather than we just "saw" God. Dan |
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2 | 2,000 years not enough to "know" God? | John 13:33 | EdB | 232757 | ||
I never said Old Testament believers went up to the Lord immediately after death. I said they went to Hades/Hell to the side which is known as Abraham's bosom. They resided there until Jesus upon His death came there and preached the Good News and lead them then to heaven. Reread my former post. Perhaps this article will help you better understand John 1:18 The "fulness" of God as stated in verse 16 could not be known through any ordinary man. It must come through the One who possesses the nature of God. The word "God" is stated first and is without the definite article. This indicates first, that the emphasis is on the word "God," and second, the nature of God should be the object of our attention. The statement is not referring to the impossibility of a vision of God (a theophany), but rather to His qualities. "Hath seen" (heoraken) is in the Greek perfect tense indicating a past action of seeing which is held in the mind so that it may be related to others. God's nature cannot be seen or held and revealed to others by any ordinary man. The utter inability of "no man" is stressed in opposition to God who revealed himself in the Only Begotten. (Many ancient manuscripts read "God only begotten" indicating that Jesus is both God and only begotten or unique, one of a kind.) John's Gospel begins with the Logos who has eternality and equality with God. The Logos then assumed human nature and was introduced by the Baptist. Then John's Gospel proclaims that the fullness of truth and grace was in Jesus Christ. Verse 18 is related to verses 1 and 2 by this assertion that the Logos, who is Jesus Christ, retained His deity when He came to earth. Since He is God, He had the ability to give the full revelation of God. "In the bosom of the Father" refers to the truth of His deity and shows the reason the only begotten God could be the full revelation of all that God is. He, the Logos, and now known as Jesus Christ, "is in the bosom" of God the Father. The evidence indicates that not only in eternity but even while He was on earth in the flesh His existence was in the bosom of the Father. This is the closest relationship to God. His position is not merely beside (para) God, but He is the heart of God. The Son of God is God's interpreter. God did not entrust His full revelation to be given by men; He took the initiative to declare it for himself. Complete Biblical Library Commentary - The Complete Biblical Library – John. Strong's was never meant to be dictionary of Greek and Hebrew words. We must be cautious when we use it to supply definitions making sure we maintain context. Most original language words are far more complex than a single English word equivalent. |
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3 | 2,000 years not enough to "know" God? | John 13:33 | 00123 | 232759 | ||
Ed, I appreciate and agree with your citation on Jn 1:18. But as for the death, I thought believers, even after Jesus' crucifixion, go to Abraham's bosom and wait for the judgment and coming of God's kingdom, but did God change the practice with Jesus' sacrifice? So, do believers now go to God upon death? -Dan |
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4 | 2,000 years not enough to "know" God? | John 13:33 | EdB | 232760 | ||
Do believers now go to the God upon death? Yes Paul tells us in 2 Corinthians 5:6-8 (NASB) 6 Therefore, being always of good courage, and knowing that while we are at home in the body we are absent from the Lord— 7 for we walk by faith, not by sight— 8 we are of good courage, I say, and prefer rather to be absent from the body and to be at home with the Lord. Which we interpret to mean that upon the death of a believer, they go directly into the presence of the Lord. However non believers still go Hades/Hell on the hot dry side to await their final Judgement. |
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