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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who did Isaiah see in John 12:41 | John 12:41 | beethoven | 81798 | ||
In the N.I.V bible it says that Isaiah saw jesus' glory, in reference to Isaiah 6:10. But in most bibles it uses the word "his" instead of "jesus". In the original greek text the word jesus is not mentioned. Did the niv translators have the right to insert the name jesus? How do we know that john was talking about jesus. anti-trinitarians say that to insert the name jesus is unjustified and is doctrinaly based. So my question is "How can we be sure that It was Jesus' glory or that it was just God manifesting hinself? |
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2 | Who did Isaiah see in John 12:41 | John 12:41 | Morant61 | 81800 | ||
Greetings Beethoven! There are two imporant points about John 12:41. First of all, the Greek text does not specifically mention 'Jesus'. The phrase is literally 'the glory of him'. So, I would have simply translated it as 'His glory'. Secondly though, the context is clear about whose glory is being discussed - it is Jesus' glory. So, the meaning of the NIV translation is accurate, though I would not have added the word 'Jesus'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Who did Isaiah see in John 12:41 | John 12:41 | winstonchurchill | 81811 | ||
Yes, Tim is correct. This is one of the dangers of a 'dynamic equivalence' translation such as the NIV. In such a translation, the translator is seeking to write a thought which conveys the thought which the translator received from the text. He is NOT seeking to translate the words of the original text. However, as Tim suggests, the enthusiasm of the NIV translator is relatively harmless here. The verse is clearly the editorial comment of John upon the prophecy of Isaiah. When John says that Isaiah "said [these things] because he [Isaiah] saw His [Christ's] glory, and he [Isaiah] spoke of Him [Christ]." There is little doubt from the context of John's account that that is exactly what John meant. Now, it is clear that John was not present when Isaiah uttered his quoted prophecy and it is equally clear that John never interrogated Isaiah as to his [Isaiah's] intent. So, you can believe that John either (i) made this up or (ii) was writing what God had inspired him to say. For lots of reasons beyond the scope of your question, I think the latter is true. |
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