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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Please explain this verse? | Mark 15:34 | kalos | 1551 | ||
Subject: Please explain this verse? Mark 15:34 Note: "That's the way I see it too. It's too bad no one responded to you directly." What in the world is this forum coming to? Out of more than a dozen replies, only one person responded to the question directly? What a pity that only one among us had the great wisdom and knowledge to respond directly -- capitalized pronouns and all! Yeah, right. |
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2 | Please explain this verse? | Mark 15:34 | charis | 1561 | ||
Dear friend, you are right! It is a shame when our zeal to inform others of our thoughts turns us from the 'job at hand.' I will attempt to stay on track, and thank you for reminding me of focus and dignity. The words Jesus spoke are a quote from Psalm 22:1. Some say that He probably prayed the entire psalm, as a testimony that He Himself answered the prophecy of this psalm. (The Pulpit Commentary) "Posterity will serve Him; It will be told of the Lord to the coming generation.They will come and will declare His righteousness To a people who will be born, that He has performed it." Psalm 22:30,31 NASB I am of this camp, I find it unthinkable that the Lord was 'temporarily seperated' from the Trinity, or that He 'experienced' hell. I do believe that he experienced death and derision that the prophecies would be fulfilled, and that He would indeed be proven victorious over Satan. Only God's Anointed could do so. Though He was 'as a lamb led to slaughter,' from the moment after "It is finished," He was crowned in glory and resurrection power. For us, Amen! In Christ Jesus. |
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3 | Please explain this verse? | Mark 15:34 | Delores | 1604 | ||
God were temporarily seperated man because he had to experience death as man and not as God because God died for our sins. He did this because Adam and Eve felled in because they disobeyed God.John 3:16 'For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.' God also had to experience hell because God would not had died and then rose on the third day. | ||||||
4 | 'Separation' and 'Experience?' | Mark 15:34 | charis | 1609 | ||
Dear delores, Xapis, and Hawaii Ken Armstrong (and maybe some others) I have been studying this verse and the context for some time now, and still cannot find in the Bible the doctrine of Jesus' 'temporary' separation from the Trinity and 'experiencing' Hell. Maybe I am just obtuse, but I would like to hear scriptural evidence of these things. I am not an heretic, I completely believe that Jesus died for my (our) sins. I just can't find anywhere in the Bible where it says that Jesus was 'separated' from the Godhead, even for a moment. That Jesus was a man and the Son of God at the same time is a well-documented Biblical doctrine, often called a mystery, why modify it? (I am aware that it SOUNDS emotionally appealing to dwell on a 'separation,' and maybe even 'seems' to answer the mystery) As to 'experiencing' Hell, Jesus as God cannot 'experience' sin or spiritual damnation. He experienced HUMAN damnation, and bore OUR sins as a substitutionary sacrifice. He became 'sin' on our behalf, in order to abolish it. I can got to 'jail- ministry' and evangelize, and even get to know the inmate's plight, but you have to commit the crime and be incarcerated for it to truly 'experience' jail. You can go to India as a missionary, and even live there for years, but unless you are 'with the people' and living like they do, you can never 'know' their situation. Again, this concept appeals to the ear and to the soul, but is it from God's word? I ask humbly for an explanation, and ask pardon for a 'dumb' question. In Christ Jesus. | ||||||
5 | 'Separation' and 'Experience?' | Mark 15:34 | jg8ball | 1644 | ||
The way I've heard the separation explained is the Mark 15:34 passage: And at the ninth hour Jesus cried out in a loud voice, "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?"--which means, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me? The term forsaken could imply different meanings but one interpretation is that God "severed the link" for moment so that Jesus would be fully able to die for our sins. As far as the "experiencing Hell" part, I think you might be refering to Eph 4:8-10 - This is why it says: "When he ascended on high, he led captives in his train and gave gifts to men." (What does "he ascended" mean except that he also descended to the lower, earthly regions ? He who descended is the very one who ascended higher than all the heavens, in order to fill the whole universe.) I've heard this verse used to describe that Jesus went to "an area of Hell" that was more of a waiting place for those God favored (Moses, Abe, Josh, Noah, etc...) Jesus freed them from this area and opened the door to Heaven for them and those that believe. As far as if this would be the way I would interpret them, I can't say. I'd have to do a whole lot more studying before I could say one way or the other. There may be other verses that are used to support these ideas but these are the ones that came to mind. |
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