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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is the Law abolished? | Matt 5:17 | Yitzhak | 12248 | ||
I believe that Jesus was saying that the Law (Mosaic Law) will remain in effect, for nonbelievers, until the very last person who is going to be saved, is saved. When viewed this way there is no conflict between this verse (and the next verse) and what Paul says in Romans. | ||||||
2 | Is the Law abolished? | Matt 5:17 | Magnum | 23299 | ||
I think most of the confusion surrounding this statement start with the mistransaltion of the Greek word plerosai which means "to fill." In Matthew 5:17 most if not all translations render it "to fulfill." The theological implication often drawn is that Jesus fulfilled all of the prophecies of the "Old Testament," so that none remain today for the Jews, and that he obeyed only relevant Torah (Law) command, so that no one needs to observe the Torah (Law) today. But these conclusions do not follow logically, and in fact they contradict Jesus's (Yeshua's) immediately preceding statement that he did not come to abolish (or destroy) the Law (Torah). It is my view (and the view of others) that Jesus came not to fulfill, but to fill the Law (Torah), and the ethical pronouncements of the Prophets full with their complete meaning, so that everyone can know all that obedience, to not only him, but also to the Torah of G*d entails. | ||||||