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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why does it say "since", not "if"? | Matt 4:6 | Searcher56 | 15087 | ||
Why is does it translated "if", not "since"? It is the proper translation of the word. Is there a translation that says "since"? |
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2 | Why does it say "since", not "if"? | Matt 4:6 | Morant61 | 15105 | ||
Greetings Steve! There are some who believe that 'ei' can be translated as "since" at times. However, it takes a combination of form and context which is not present in this verse. So, none of the translations I checked translated the verse as "since...". Neither would I translate it this way. In fact, I think that "since" has been way overused to begin with. The simple conditional clause assumes the truth of the statement for the sake of argument. Thus, in this question, Satan is asking Jesus "If (for the sake of argument) you are the Son of God...." It is this assumption of fact that leads many to think that 'ei' can be translated as "since." However, if we followed this rule all the time, we would end up with some very strange statements. Consider Mt. 12:27: "And if I drive out demons by Beelzebub, by whom do your people drive them out? So then, they will be your judges." Do we really want to translate this verse, "Since I cast out demons by Beelzebub...."? My preference is to stay with "if" unless the context absolutely demands it. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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