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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Fletch - Who is the exception? | Matt 3:6 | Rowdy | 118349 | ||
From the Apostle Peter: 1 Pet 3:18 For Christ died for sins once for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive by the Spirit, 19through whom also he went and preached to the spirits in prison 20who disobeyed long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built. In it only a few people, eight in all, were saved through water, 21and this water symbolizes baptism that now saves you also--not the removal of dirt from the body but the pledge of a good conscience toward God. It saves you by the resurrection of Jesus Christ, 22who has gone into heaven and is at God's right hand--with angels, authorities and powers in submission to him. Also Rom 6 and Acts 2 I acknowledge there are a few verses that are not quite as clear as these above but the point is we're taking a chance when we stand on such questionable verses. The net result of the NT as a whole very clearly gives baptism as the place where we contact the blood of Jesus through grace and faith and it's there where God washes away our sins. There's nothing in the NT more humbling than submitting to Him in baptism on His terms for the reason as stated in Acts 2:38. God bless. --Rowdy |
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2 | Fletch - Who is the exception? | Matt 3:6 | Searcher56 | 118410 | ||
This is a repost of 77175, which you probably didn't read .... It is on Acts 2:38 Two reposts by Morant61 First of all, the verbs are different numbers. a) 'Repent' is an (Aorist, Active, Imperative, 2nd Person, Plural) verb. b) 'Be baptized' is an (Aorist, Passive, Imperative, 3rd Person, Singular) verb. c) The pronoun in the phrase 'for forgiveness of sins' is a Second Person, Plural pronoun. Therefore, the phrase 'for the forgiveness of sins' cannot be associated with the command to 'be baptized'. It is simply not gramatically possible. The best way to view the verse is the view the command to be baptized as a parenthetical statement: "Repent (plural) (and let each one be baptized (singular) in the Name of Jesus Christ) for the forgiveness of your (plural) sins and you (plural) will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit" Failure to account for the changes in number in this verses results in bad interpretation. Secondly, there is evidence to indicate that the phrase 'for the forgiveness of your sins' can also be understood as 'because of' or 'as a result' of the forgiveness of your sins. This same construction is used in Mt. 3:11 and 12:41. If you interpret the word 'eis' in Mt. 3:11 in the same way that you do in Acts 2:38, then baptism produces repentance. Therefore, Acts 2:38 should read: "Be baptized, which leads to repentance..." But, it is clear that Mt. 3:11 indicates that baptism is done as a result of or on the basis of a prior repentance. The same thing is clear in Mt 12:41 as well. Jonah did not preach because of the repentance of Niveveh. Rather, Niveveh repented because of the preaching of Jonah. The same 'eis' contruction is used in both of these verses as is used in Acts 2:38. Therefore, there are two very sound grammatical reasons why Acts 2:38 cannot mean that baptism leads to forgiveness of sins. Combined with this are the countless number of verses which specify faith alone as the only condition of salvation. Between the two lines of evidence, it is very clear that baptism is not necessary for salvation, but is something which those who have already been saved are commanded to do. Post 2 1) The rest of Scripture does not make baptism necessary for salvation, including Acts. Consider the following verses from Acts where forgiveness is mentioned and notice that not one of them links forgiveness with baptism. a) Acts 5:31 - b) Acts 10:43 - c) Acts 13:38-39 - d) Acts 26:18 - Notice that none of these other verses in Acts tie baptism in with the forgiveness of sins. If baptism were essential to salvation, you would think that it would be mentioned in these other verses as well. 2) There are reasons to believe that "for the forgiveness of sins" does not express result, but rather expresses the ground or reason for baptism. The preposition translated as ‘for’ in Acts 2:38 is sometimes used in this way. Consider the following examples and notice that two of them involve baptism (additional evidence that Acts 2:38 should be translated as "on the basis or grounds of the forgiveness of your sins): a) Matthew 3:11 - b) Matthew 12:41 - Allow me to address Mt. 12:41 first. The phrase "repented at the preaching of Jonah" uses the same preposition (eis) as does Acts 2:38. Obviously, the preaching of Jonah was the basis of their repentance, not the other way around. The other example illustrates the same thing and it involves baptism. In Mt. 3:11, baptism did not produce repentance. Rather, repentance was the grounds for baptism. 3) Finally, there is evidence in Acts 2:38 that the middle clause (involving baptism) may be a parenthetical statement. The command to repent is plural. The command to be baptized is singular. This would seems to indicate some break in the chain of thought. If this is the case, the phrase "for the remission of sins" may not even belong with the command to be baptized. |
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