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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | daniel 11:37 translation differences | Dan 11:37 | bible believer | 197960 | ||
again, i apologize for the lack of clarity in my question. i am not asking whether one would determine the antichrist to be jewish vs. gentile. i think that is a very debatable topic. what i am questioning is the substantive difference between the niv and the kjv translations. essentially, the kjv says he is a jew and the niv (as well as the nasb, esv, etc) says he's a gentile. how could two reputable translations say the opposite thing? thanks for your "two cents". :-) celebrating His birth, biblebeliever |
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2 | daniel 11:37 translation differences | Dan 11:37 | DocTrinsograce | 197963 | ||
Hi, biblebeliever... The word antichrist is used four times in the Bible, all by John, but only in his first two epistles. In 1 John 2:18 he says that there are "many antichrists." Further on in the same letter he says "This is the antichrist, he who denies the Father and the Son." (1 John 2:22b ESV) By that definition anyone, Jew or Gentile, can and/or is an antichrist by their denial that Jesus is the one true Messiah, God incarnate, second person of the Trinity. In Him, Doc |
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