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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Apologetics Help Please! | Is 7:14 | Morant61 | 178884 | ||
Greetings Mscanlon1! There are several issues that need to be addressed in regards to your question. The first question which must be addressed is the meaning of the terms themselves. Sceptics have long tried to argue that a 'maiden' or 'almah' is not the same as a 'virgin' or 'bethula'. They are partially right, but they are also partially wrong. A maiden would normally be a virgin. :-) Thus, the sharp distinction between the two terms simply doesn't work. Further evidence of this is that the Hebrew speaking translators of the LXX used the Greek word for 'virgin' to translate the Hebrew word 'almah'. Thus, they clearly understood Is. 7:14 as a reference to a virgin. The second issue that must be addressed is the original context of the prophecy. Some prophecies have dual meanings. The orginal prophecies probably only meant that a young woman, who was currently a virgin, would conceive and give birth as a sign to Israel at that time. However, we know from the New Testament that there was an even greater fulfillment where a virgin would conceive without knowing a mn. Which, brings us to the final issue. The doctrine of the Virgin Birth does not stand or fall upon how one translates the term in Is. 7:14. Why? Because, the inspired New Testament specifically tells us that Mary was a virgin. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Apologetics Help Please! | Is 7:14 | kalos | 178896 | ||
Good point! Tim: You write: "The doctrine of the Virgin Birth does not stand or fall upon how one translates the term in Is. 7:14." To that I say Amen and Amen! You make a good point -- one that is often overlooked by many. Grace to you, John |
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