Results 1 - 6 of 6
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | humbledbyhisgrace | 178949 | ||
Greetings Brother! If he would have done so? Surly we cannot pass this off as proof of such a teaching! I think we can agree that He had the ability to call on the Father, but how does this prove He could have been disobedient to the Father? Is the "If" not assumption on your part? How can it be? Colossians 2:9 (NASB95) For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form |
||||||
2 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 178969 | ||
Hi Steve. You said. "I think we can agree that He had the ability to call on the Father", What is the point of His saying this, if as you maintain He was incapable of doing it?, it just does not make sense. If He said He could do this, which He did in fact say, but it was impossible for Him to do so, then you are calling Him a lier, and as I have said in my post to "NewPilgrim" on this topic, (which post I suggest you read), "my Jesus is not a lier". Please tell me what Coll 2:9 has to do with this? "in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily", so what, how does this relate to what Jesus said at Matthew 26:53?. |
||||||
3 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | humbledbyhisgrace | 178993 | ||
Greetings Brother! You said "If He said He could do this, which He did in fact say, but it was impossible for Him to do so, then you are calling Him a lier, and as I have said in my post to "NewPilgrim" on this topic, (which post I suggest you read), "my Jesus is not a lier"." Let's please be careful with our accusations. Accusing me of calling our Lord a liar is unacceptable. I'll leave it at that and let you address your own motivation for such an accusation against a brother. If my original post instigated such anger in you I apologize and ask you to forgive me. That was not my intent! You ask "What is the point of His saying this, if as you maintain He was incapable of doing it?, it just does not make sense." I humbly admit I probably don't make good sense most of the time. Let me try and explain. Matthew 26:51-54 (NASB95) 51 And behold, one of those who were with Jesus reached and drew out his sword, and struck the slave of the high priest and cut off his ear. 52 Then Jesus said* to him, "Put your sword back into its place; for all those who take up the sword shall perish by the sword. 53 "Or do you think that I cannot appeal to My Father, and He will at once put at My disposal more than twelve legions of angels? 54 "How then will the Scriptures be fulfilled, which say that it must happen this way?" I don't for a second think I can speak for Jesus but in MY OPINION and with confidence I might add, the point of him saying this was not to prove he could sin which you teach! Based on the scriptures, I would say his point is clear in the above passage paying close attention to verse 54. Is he not teaching that what was taking place and would take place was the will of God. Notice in verse 54 it says, "it must happen this way". Is it possible to find conflict in the triune God? Let's look back at exactly what I said. My version not yours :-) I said "I think we can agree that He had the ability to call on the Father, but how does this prove He could have been disobedient to the Father?" You pointed to the scripture as evidence that Jesus could sin. In my opinion this is a worldly view placing Christ on the same level as man, completely over looking the fact He is God and well teaching that God himself could sin. You attribute the nature of mankind (sinful) to Jesus. To this again I ask, How can it be? As the son of God I believe he could do anything but sin! It goes against the nature of God to sin so how is it possible that He could have sinned? If the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are one God, how is it possible that any of the three persons in the triune God could sin? You ask "Please tell me what Coll 2:9 has to do with this? "in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily", so what, how does this relate to what Jesus said at Matthew 26:53?." It was a reminder to you who this Jesus was who you attributed the ability to sin. God bless, Steve |
||||||
4 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 179026 | ||
Steve. Greetings Brother. There is no need for you to apologize, you have not offended me, dismayed perhaps, frustrated possibly, but offended no. I asked you to look at my post to NewPilgrim, which you do not appear to have done, as you have not made any comment on, "not My will but Thine be done". Your problem as I see it is one that is all too common with a lot of christians, that is an inability to reconcile the Diety of our Lord Jesus, with His true humanity. Let me ask you a number of questions, but before I do so let me state that I have no problem with the fact that Jesus is God, as anyone will know who has read what I have had to say on that subject on this Forum, and as the many verses of Scripture I have quoted indicate. What follows might seem as if I am playing the Devil's Advocate. This is not in fact the case, but the verses I shall refer to could be used by his servants to undermine a believers faith. Unfortunatly this is helped along by thoes Preachers who will say "Although we are considering the humanity of Jesus, let it be clearly understood that at no time was He any less than God". This teaching plays straight into the hands of the Evil one, who will try to use it to his advantage. Jesus is refered to as "My Servant" at Isaiah 52:13, which is where one should start to read Isaiah Ch 53. Tell me how can the servant of God, also at the same time be God? Psalm 22:1. Jesus cried out "My God My God", Tell me how it is possible that He who is God could possibly address Himself as My God? only someone who is not God could say this. Hebrews 2:9. "Made lower than the angles". Hebrews 10:7. "To do your will O God". 1 Corinthinans 15:28. "Then the Son himself will also be subjected to him.....God". John 5:30. Please tell me why it is that God has to say "I can of my self do nothing". Why God has to say "As I hear I judge". who does He take advice from? Why is it that the only way in which God knows that His judgment is righteous, is because He dose not seek His own will? Why are we told at Acts 2:22, "God did through him", if it was Jesus who performed the Miracles? Phillipians 2:9. How can you give someone what they have allready got? Note see Isaiah 45:22-23, for the application of this mame. Rest assured that I have no problem with the verses I have quoted above, they do not prevent me from rejoicing in the fact that Jesus is God. Refering now to Coll 2:9. This is a verse that I especially love, and have used many times to indicate that the entire Godhead, that is all three persons suffered and died on the cross, and not just only the man Jesus. The Lord bless you Steve. Edwin. |
||||||
5 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | srbaegon | 179029 | ||
Hello Edwin, God cannot sin. He is utterly holy. If the Lord Jesus could have sinned, then he could cease to be God. That is absurd. Also, consider Heb 4:15 (ESV)-- For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin. The Greek construction of the phrase "without sin" is literally "sin apart" and constitutes a complete inability to take part in anything sinful. Steve |
||||||
6 | Is there any scripture regarding whether | Gen 3:15 | ebrain | 179044 | ||
Steve. I have never at any time said that God could sin, I am in full agreement with you, God cannot sin. That however is not the question. What I have been dealing with is the humanity, and not the Deity of Jesus. It is written of God that He "will neither slumber nor sleep", Psalm 121:4. (ESV), Jesus went to sleep in the back of a boat. Tell me would this refer to the Divine nature of Jesus, or His human nature? When Jesus said "not my will but thine de done". He is indicating His ability to chose, are you saying that He did not have the ability to chose? Please explain to me why He said this, if He was icapable of free choice?. Would you also please respond to the other questions that I have asked in the post to which you have replied. Edwin. |
||||||