Results 1 - 7 of 7
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Torn veil of Mat 15.38 the literal veil? | Matthew | graftedin | 212667 | ||
My question is about Matthew 15:38. I take this verse literally because (1) the wording used would indicate it ("in two" and "from top to bottom"); (2) because everything Jesus was/is and everything He did was represented by some tangible foreshadow, so it's easy to believe that the tearing of His flesh/veil would be represented in a tangible way; and (3) because what He did (paying for our sin once for all and thus giving believers direct access to God through Him) really needed to be demonstrated to people in a tangible way. I also understand Hebrews 10:19-20, but still think that Matt. 15:38 is literal. However, a friend believes that Mark 15:38 refers to Jesus' flesh - that the actual Temple veil was not torn in two. She believes this because she has read commentators who say that no extrabiblical sources (such as Josephus) record the tearing of the veil, and if such a momentous thing had truly happened, it would have been recorded (as other things were). That argument is very convincing since other cataclysmic occurrences were recorded, and because Jesus had already referred to His body as the Temple (John 2:19). Still, those are not enough to overcome my reasons above. Does anyone have any more information on this? |
||||||
2 | Torn veil of Mat 15.38 the literal veil? | Matthew | stjohn | 212668 | ||
Hello graftedin, Well, lets just use your own logic, and ask, if there is any record, Biblical or otherwise, that His human body was rend in twain? John |
||||||
3 | Torn veil of Mat 15.38 the literal veil? | Matthew | graftedin | 212669 | ||
I'm not sure I get your point (I assume you're asking rhetorically). I have read very little in extraBiblical resources, so I really don't know how much is written about Jesus. I've heard a lot of people say that there is more evidence for the accuracy of the Bible and for Jesus' existence and deity than for many nonBiblical things people accept as fact. That's not my question, though. I already believe what the Bible says about Jesus. I just want to know (A) Are there any extraBiblical sources from the first century that record the tearing of the veil in the Temple, and (B) Is there any reason not to believe that Mark 15:38 is literal? Sorry if I wasn't clear about that in my original question. |
||||||
4 | Torn veil of Mat 15.38 the literal veil? | Matthew | stjohn | 212671 | ||
Okay, (A) I don't know. (B) Certainly not; the Bible is the inspired word of God, and it is true, every word of it. -"Its doctrines are holy, its precepts are binding, its histories are true, and its decisions are immutable"- The verse in question, Mark 15:38 "And the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom." I would take that to mean that, the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. This can also be found in Matthew 27:51 And behold, the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom; and the earth shook and the rocks were split. Here too is some worthwile comentary on this verse. Ver. 51. And behold, the vail of the temple was rent in twain,.... Just at the time that Christ spake with so loud a voice, and expired, and which was at the time of the offering up of the evening incense; and so must be seen by the priest that was then offering, and those that assisted him, for the incense altar was near the vail; and which must be a very astonishing sight unto them: the vail was of a very great thickness; it was made of fine twined linen," John Gill Verses 51-56 "The rending of the veil signified that Christ, by his death, opened a way to God. We have an open way through Christ to the throne of grace, or mercy-seat now, and to the throne of glory hereafter. When we duly consider Christ's death, our hard and rocky hearts should be rent; the heart, and not the garments. That heart is harder than a rock that will not yield, that will not melt, where Jesus Christ is plainly set forth crucified. The graves were opened, and many bodies of saints which slept, arose. To whom they appeared, in what manner, and how they disappeared, we are not told; and we must not desire to be wise above what is written. The dreadful appearances of God in his providence, sometimes work strangely for the conviction and awakening of sinners. This was expressed in the terror that fell upon the centurion and the Roman soldiers. We may reflect with comfort on the abundant testimonies given to the character of Jesus; and, seeking to give no just cause of offence, we may leave it to the Lord to clear our characters, if we live to Him. Let us, with an eye of faith, behold Christ and him crucified, and be affected with that great love wherewith he loved us. But his friends could give no more than a look; they beheld him, but could not help him. Never were the horrid nature and effects of sin so tremendously displayed, as on that day when the beloved Son of the Father hung upon the cross, suffering for sin, the Just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God. Let us yield ourselves willingly to his service." Matthew Henry John |
||||||
5 | Torn veil of Mat 15.38 the literal veil? | Matthew | graftedin | 212675 | ||
John, thank you for taking the time to answer my question. I don't question that the Bible is the inspired word of God and wholly true and accurate; that's not what I meant by "literal." I have been taught and have read that within the boundaries of sound Bible interpretation, there are some things in the Bible that are not literal. They're TRUE, but not literal. For example, Ps. 50:10, that God owns the cattle on a thousand hills.....that probably doesn't mean literally one thousand, but more likely means uncounted or infinite or something like that. When God told Abraham that his descendants would be numbered like the grains of sand on earth or the stars in the sky, He didn't literally mean an exact number, but uncountable (by anyone but God). When Ezekiel and John saw their visions, were all of those descriptive words literal, or representative of an idea? I can't think of other examples right now, but I think you get my point. As I said in my original question, Mark 15:38 (and parallel passages) sounds to me like there's no way to take it except literally. But I'm just an average person studying the Bible and there might be something I don't yet see about this. I can't discern, for example, whether or not the streets in heaven are literally gold, or if the word is intended to evoke imagery. I've read bunches of commentaries about this verse and a lot on the web, but I've found nothing that addresses my questions A and B. | ||||||
6 | Torn veil of Mat 15.38 the literal veil? | Matthew | skccab | 212676 | ||
Graftedin I think you're standing among good company. I think everyone on this Forum takes that particular verse quite literally. Here I'm gonna really mess up a good saying but you'll get the gist anyway - "When the sense of the sentence makes sense, then it makes no sense to try to make some other sense of it." ???? (I hope I didn't destroy that statement tooo bad!!) :o) Cheri |
||||||
7 | Torn veil of Mat 15.38 the literal veil? | Matthew | graftedin | 212678 | ||
Cheri, I have been getting that feeling - having read my own print and software commentaries and searched the web for about an hour, I haven't found anything that expressed the views my friend has heard or read. That's not necessarily proof that my views are correct - there are a whole lot of people who believe incorrect doctrines! |
||||||