Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | during the 3 days? | Matthew | michael03 | 195345 | ||
Shalom. Matt.12:40. Jesus says he must spend three days and three nights in the belly of the earth. During that time, He was in hell, showing Satan that the Lord has defeated death, hell, and the grave. He also took back the key to the bootmless pit,(Rev.9:1). He also preached to the souls that where in hell, to give them a chance for salvation. Peace be with you,michael | ||||||
2 | during the 3 days? | Matthew | BradK | 195367 | ||
Hello michael, I think we need to be careful about offering speculative answers, my friend. 3 Points: 1. Matt 12:40 in no way supports this false teaching that Jesus went to or was in hell. This is more founded in WOF heresy. Spurgeon make no note of this in his commentary on Matthew. The Commentary Critical says this: "so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth—This was the second public announcement of His resurrection three days after His death. (For the first, see Jn 2:19). Jonah’s case was analogous to this. as being a signal judgment of God; reversed in three days; and followed by a glorious mission to the Gentiles. The expression “in the heart of the earth,” suggested by the expression of Jonah with respect to the sea (Jon 2:3, in the Septuagint), means simply the grave, but this considered as the most emphatic expression of real and total entombment. The period during which He was to lie in the grave is here expressed in round numbers, according to the Jewish way of speaking, which was to regard any part of a day, however small, included within a period of days, as a full day. (See 1Sa 30:12, 13; Es 4:16; 5:1; 1Sa 30:12, 13, Mt 27:63, 64,)" 2. What evidence is there that Jesus is the one referred to here in Rev. 9:1? I see none. Though the refernce to star is most likely to a person - because of "he" in verse 2 and "king" in verse 11, the star is most likely representinf Satan cast out of heaven at the beginning of the Great tribulation (Rev. 12:9); 3. That He preached to souls in hell (1 Pet. 3:19-20), is anything but conclusive! This passage is difficult at best and there are many varied views as to what it means- yours offered being one of them! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3 | during the 3 days? | Matthew | G. Preston | 195387 | ||
BradK, Your patience is requested. Why did you react in such manner to, admittedly, a "speculative" answer? Aren't you convinced that G-d had the Bible written thru man, in its' fashion to foster and promote individual interpretation and intent? I am....and I believe He did it for a purpose. That is to urge us to study,analysis,discuss,debate and do it all over again. Thanks. I am new on the board and wish to gain insight. |
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4 | during the 3 days? | Matthew | stjohn | 195388 | ||
Dear Preston, You wrote; "Aren't you convinced that G-d had the Bible written thru man, in its' fashion to foster and promote individual interpretation and intent? I am....and I believe He did it for a purpose. That is to urge us to study,analysis,discuss,debate and do it all over again. sir, this not only goes against scripture, 2 Pet 1:20 "But know this first of all, that no prophecy of Scripture is a matter of one's own interpretation," you are promoting what is against the rules and guidelines of this forum. Please refresh yourself by reading them. |
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5 | during the 3 days? | Matthew | G. Preston | 195406 | ||
With respect. You extracted my writings from proper context. I am presently familiar with Pet. 1:20, and am not surprised of its' reference by any good Bible student, in due time. I was not aware that the discussion had reached an "Interpretative" state. Wasn't the proponent in the process of discerning a proper conclusion? Was he not asking questions? Further, please note:..."one's own interpretation". Meaning two are more are obliged to review, analysis, discuss, debate in the process of concluding...with help from the Holy Spirit...per scripture;..."where two or more are gathered, there I will be also". During that process, where scripture is not sufficiently clear to a proponent, is he not permitted to engage as an interlocutor? If not, please give scripture reference. Also, if not, please explain the process by which proper interpretation becomes established? Bible students recognize some scriptures are not sufficiently clear for immediate conclusion...less this and 75 percent...estimate...of exchanges would not be necessary. Positions which contribute to stifling discussion or intermediate opinion in the process of finding proper conclusions of The Words' meaning is not G-d's way, I submit. Less much productive discussion of scripture would be lost. Isn't the concern... how an interpretation is accomplished?: without arguing, criticism of position and malice towards opponent and without other proper decorum? It is not my desire or intent to violate forum rules which I have familiarized myself. Please be specific and direct me to the words of such rules I am in violation of , as you have charged. |
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6 | during the 3 days? | Matthew | stjohn | 195408 | ||
G. Preston, 1.) Advocating privet interpretation of scripture. 2.) Advocating debate. This is a Bible study, not, a debate forum. If you wish to study the Bible, I'd be glad to engage you, as it stands, I see nothing substantive in this discussion. God bless John |
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