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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Hebrew and Greek Old Testament | Bible general Archive 4 | 10ECPreacher | 200957 | ||
Hello, JRM. The Septuagint has fascinated me for several years now, although I by no means claim to be an authority on the subject. It is my understanding that the Septuagint (LXX) was written in the common ("koine") Greek language -- as opposed to the classical Greek language. It was this common Greek language that the inspired writers of the New Testament used -- apparently by permission if not by mandate of the Holy Spirit. Thus, according to scholars, the syntax and vocabulary of the Greek NT are based largely upon that of the Greek OT -- the LXX. This explains why certain words have come to us as they have; for example, the OT Hebrew "Yeshua" (which is translated into "Joshua" in English) was translated in the the Greek OT as "IESOUS". This of course is the NT Greek word that is transliterated into the English name of our Savior -- JESUS. Also the OT Hebrew word "Messiah" was translated into the Greek word "CHRISTOS" -- which we know as the word CHRIST in English. From what I have read about the LXX, it apparently largely follows a different Hebrew text (found among the Dead Sea scrolls) instead of the Masoretic text of our Hebrew OT. Yet, the textual differences are slight (e.g., word order, spellings and/or punctuation), with no doctrinal/theological variances. Maybe this will help in answering your question. In Christ, tdc |
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2 | Hebrew and Greek Old Testament | Bible general Archive 4 | DocTrinsograce | 200958 | ||
Dear tdc, Please note that neither ancient Greek nor ancient Hebrew had punctuation. Even the space between words is a modern invention. In Him, Doc |
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3 | Hebrew and Greek Old Testament | Bible general Archive 4 | 10ECPreacher | 200960 | ||
Thank you, Doc, for catching my error. I over-zealously paraphrased the following sentence from the Wikipedia entry for Septuagint: "The readily apparent semantic differences result from alternative strategies for interpreting the difficult verse and relate to differences in vowelization and punctuation of the consonantal text." Obviously, the editors "punctuate" our texts today, but you are quite correct in pointing out that the ancient texts had no punctuation marks. Thanks again for making this clarification! In Christ, tdc |
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4 | Hebrew and Greek Old Testament | Bible general Archive 4 | DocTrinsograce | 200963 | ||
Hi, tdc... They got the "vowelization" wrong, too. Vowels weren't introduced into Hebrew until the 13th century. :-) In Him, Doc |
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