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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | About Premillenialism... | Bible general Archive 2 | bjh | 109362 | ||
I don't see these passages as being figurative. What makes you say they are figurative? Maybe its a matter of one's own interpretation. For example, the Jews look at Isaiah 53 and declare it "figurative" and say it describes the nation of Israel. As believers, we say that it refers to the Messiah. You don't have to be convinced. You asked what premillennialists believed. I responded. However, for the record, from my standpoint, premillennialism has the strongest Biblical support of any eschatalogical scheme. |
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2 | About Premillenialism... | Bible general Archive 2 | Rowdy | 122978 | ||
And yet in stark contrast, we see from the Hebrews writer, most likely Apostle Paul Heb 9:26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself. 27 And inasmuch as it is appointed for men to die once and after this comes judgment, 28 so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him. Since we have this clear language in verse 27 in contrast to the figurative language of the Bible, I have to put my vote in with the clear guidance. Sorry about not noticing your note earlier and responding; this one completely went over me. God bless. --Rowdy |
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