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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Holy Spirit, an impersonal force? | Bible general Archive 1 | Bern | 82152 | ||
I will spell it out for you. 1 Corinthians 8:6 yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live.(NIV) 1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,(NIV) 1 Cor 8:6 tells us that there is ‘one God, the Father’ could this not be plainer? Jesus is mentioned seperatly. 1 Tim 2:5 tells that there is one God and that Jesus is not that one God, Jesus is the mediatior between the one God and Man – seems clear enough. Bern |
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2 | Holy Spirit, an impersonal force? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 82160 | ||
Greetings Bern! Thank you! Spelling always was my worst subject! ;-) As I mentioned in my last post, the doctrine of the Trinity does not teach that there are three Gods, but it does teach that there are three distinct persons within the Godhead. What is the evidence for this? The evidence consists of the verses where Jesus is called God. One which was mentioned on the forum the other day is Rom. 9:5 - "Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of Christ, who is God over all, forever praised! Amen." But, there are others of course. John 1:1 - "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning." Notice, that this verse affirms the very same thing that you found objectionable - that Jesus was both God and distinct from God. Or, how about the verses where it is clear in the Greek that Jesus is called God? 2 Thess. 1:12 - "We pray this so that the name of our Lord Jesus may be glorified in you, and you in him, according to the grace of our God and the Lord Jesus Christ." The last clause here is a clear construction in Greek, only one person is being mentioned - i.e. Jesus is both God and Lord. The same thing occurs in Titus 2:13 - "while we wait for the blessed hope?the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ," Or, of course, how about the classic passage of Phil. 2:5-11? How could Christ be 'equal' to God unless He was God? As Jesus Himself said in John 14:9 - "Jesus answered: 'Don?t you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'?" So, while it is true that there are verses which mention Jesus and the Father seperately (which does not conflict with the three distinct Persons of the Trinity), it also true that Jesus is called God, affirmed as being equal with God, mentioned as doing things that only God can do, and 'emptying' Himself of all of this to become a man during the incarnation. It does seem clear enough my friend! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Holy Spirit, an impersonal force? | Bible general Archive 1 | Bern | 82706 | ||
If you are correct the please answer the question by 'beethoven' He quotes John 17:3 |
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4 | Holy Spirit, an impersonal force? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 82733 | ||
Greetings Bern! How about interacting with the verses that I posted in response to your position? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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