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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why would you include 1 John 5:7? | 1 John 5:7 | Morant61 | 98558 | ||
Greetings Justanotherchristian! Welcome to the forum! I was curious as to why you feel that a reading which is only found in four manuscripts (none of which date before the 10th century), out of the thousands in existence, should be included in the text of the Bible? There may be many textual variants over which people can legitimately have differences of opinions, but this one seems to be a 'no brainer'! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Why would you include 1 John 5:7? | 1 John 5:7 | Ray | 98567 | ||
Hi Tim, Is the 10th century when we came out of the Dark Ages? Lets get out of that period of intellectual stagnation and determine that the whole passage should be included in the Scriptures. From the heart, Ray |
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3 | Why would you include 1 John 5:7? | 1 John 5:7 | Morant61 | 98569 | ||
Greetings Ray! I'm not sure if your serious or joking on this one! :-) If your serious, the 10th century is only relevant in the sense that for almost 1000 years, the disputed text was not found in a single manuscript of 1 John. So, why would one want to add it when it appears in only four manuscripts after 1000 years of not being there. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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