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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | the Bible Alone | 2 Thess 2:15 | Lionstrong | 170914 | ||
So if we're not going to go by God's word alone, why stop at church tradition? Why not throw in the Book of Mormon and the Koran as well? If the knowledge revealed in the Word of God alone is NOT sufficient for "everything pertaining to life and godliness" (2 Pet 1:3), why not use any source? And if you appeal to the Scriptures (which can no longer be your only source of authority) to answer my question, then need I point out the contradiction? Is 8:20 To the law and to the testimony! If they do not speak according to this word, it is because they have no dawn. |
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2 | the Bible Alone | 2 Thess 2:15 | Robin Hass | 170916 | ||
Because Scripture teaches so in 2 Thess 2:15. Not the Book of Mormon or the Koran but 'the traditions which you were taught, whether by word of mouth or by letter FROM US. Simple really! This is exactly what the Christian Church, East and West taught until Martin Luther introduced novelty in the 16th-century. Scripture and Ecclesiastical Tradition. A fine example of the latter being Nicea's definition of the Trinity in 325 AD. |
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3 | the Bible Alone | 2 Thess 2:15 | Morant61 | 170918 | ||
Greetings Robin! I have a couple of quick questions for you my friend. The word 'tradition' is only used 13 times in the NT. Nine times it refers to the traditions of the Jews. Eight (Mt. 15:2, 3, 6; Mk. 7:3, 5, 8, 9, and 13) of these occurances are in a negative light concerning how the Jews had ignored God's commands in favor of their traditions. One of them is used in a neutral sense (Gal. 1:14). One occurance (Col. 2:8) is also used negatively of traditons of men in general. The other three (1 Cor. 11:2, 2 Thess. 2:15, and 2 Thess. 3:6) all reference the teachings passed on by Paul. So, here are my questions: 1) Where do any of these verses place tradition on equal footing with Scripture? 2) What was the content of these teachings? It may have simply been that Paul is refering to the teaching of Scripture when he speaks of these 'traditions' since they are not clearly spelled out. The best case that could be made is that Paul had a 'tradition' that was to be followed by those to whom he had taught it, but there is no command to pass this tradtion on or that anyone else other than Paul (though Paul uses a plural verb in 2 Thess. - it is not clear if the plural is a literary device or if literal who the others were) has the authority to produce binding tradition. We do know quite clearly from Scripture though that tradition can be opposed to God's word and condemned. p.s. - I agree with you concerning your example of the definition of the trinity in the Nicene Creed as a fine example of good tradtion. However, I would also note that it is grounded in Scripture. It has authority because it is grounded in Scripture. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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