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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What is God's Son's name? | Phil 2:9 | Mommapbs | 108399 | ||
Greetings Ray, sorry for the delay in responding! I'm a bit perplexed about Rom 1:4, have to mull this over a bit . . . Spirit of holiness vs spirit of holiness? How does this change the meaning? Who can have a "spirit" of holiness? But I believe the use of spirit in 1 Cor 6:17 is appropriate as it is OUR spirit, linked with His Spirit . . . I also agree with Spirit is 1 Cor 12:11 as it is God who is at work in us. If we used "spirit" in this verse then "he" would reference us rather than God. Blessings on your day! mommapbs |
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2 | What is God's Son's name? | Phil 2:9 | Ray | 108459 | ||
Hi Mommapbs, Thanks for getting back with me on this. I trust you had a busy holiday with family and it is good that you had that time away from the forum. I think that we agree on Spirit for 1 Cor 12:11 and I also agree that the use of spirit is appropriate for 1 Corinthians 6:16. The thing I would talk more with you is your linking of our spirit "with His Spirit". 1 Cor 6:17 reads "But the one who joins himself to the Lord is one spirit [with Him]." The "with Him" is not in the Greek. So I would say that the you and I and the spirits of other believers who join together with the Lord, are one spirit. We are the body of Christ. We are one spirit, even the body of Christ, but we are not "one spirit with Him." I would also go with the NKJ for its inclusion of the phrase [and in your spirit, which are God's.] 1 Corinthians 6:20, NKJ, "For you were bought at a price; therefore glorify God in your body and in your spirit, which are God's." We are not our own. We are for the Lord; and the Lord is for the body. 2) Romans 1:4: You ask a good question with your "Spirit of holiness vs spirit of holiness? How does this change the meaning?" If we capitalize "Spirit of holiness" then this equates Jesus Christ our Lord with the Spirit. I would suppose that the NKJ got away from that equation by putting "Jesus Christ our Lord" in verse 3 instead of verse 4. Romans 1:3,4, NKJ, "concerning His Son Jesus Christ our Lord, who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh, and declared to be the Son of God with power according to the Spirit of holiness, by the resurrection of the dead. 5 Through Him we have received..." Romans 1:3,4, NASB, "concerning His Son, who was born of a descendant of David, according to the flesh, who was declared the Son of God with power by the resurrection from the dead, according to the Spirit [marginal note, Or, spirit] of holiness, Jesus Christ our Lord, 5 through whom we have received..." I believe that the Greek should be the NASB "through whom" and we should render it the "spirit of holiness" and put the "Jesus Christ our Lord" wherever you want. (I prefer in verse 4). 3) I'll leave your "Who can have a "spirit of holiness?" for a later post; but I believe that that question is answered in Romans 1:5. What do you think? From the heart, Ray |
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3 | What is God's Son's name? | Phil 2:9 | Mommapbs | 108476 | ||
Hi Ray - it was good to get away for a while. Although I got a laptop for Christmas, I haven't had time to get it "wired" for travel! I like your observations about the body - indeed we are one spirit - in Christ, we are immersed in His Spirit, His righteousness and His holiness. Therefore, could we say that the spirit of righteousness and holiness is common to all who are in Him? IN Him! mommapbs |
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