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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is the Law abolished or not? | Eph 2:15 | Ron | 58609 | ||
This is one of the unfortunate problems with some of the new versions of the Bible. The KJV renders the word "abolish" in Matthew 5:17 as "destroy" and the word in Eph. 2:15 as abolished. The words translated "abolish" and "abolishing" in the new versions are actually two different Greek words. The word in Matthew 5:17 is kataluo which Thayer defines as: "to destroy, demolish, overthrow" etc... The word in Eph. 2:15 is katargeo which Thayer defines as: "to render idle, unemployed, inactivate, inoperative 1a) to cause a person or thing to have no further efficiency 1b) to deprive of force, influence, power." Jesus did not come to destroy the Law but He did render it inactive in the sense that "he took it out of the way nailing it to the cross" (Col. 2:14). In other words, Jesus did not come to destroy the Old Covenant but to fulfill it, and He did this by establishing His New Covenant which would necessarily render the Old Covenant without force. It is unfortunate that many of the new versions of the Bible make Paul contradict Jesus by rendering both words by the same English word. |
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2 | Is the Law abolished or not? | Eph 2:15 | Morant61 | 58655 | ||
Greetings Ron! Excellent post my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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