Results 1 - 3 of 3
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Can someone help w/my realtionship w/god | Rom 10:9 | Morant61 | 65461 | ||
Greetings FTimA! May I interject a couple of points into this discussion? 1) The Greek tenses of Acts 2:38: I'm not going to rehash what I have posted many many times before. I would ask though that you search for my previous posts on this issue and read them. If you have any questions, please feel free to ask! :-) 2) Acts 10: This is the fatal flaw to the argument that one must be baptized in order to be saved. You would have us to believe that those who had "received the gift of the Holy Spirit" (Acts 10:45) were not actually saved as of yet. However, based upon your own interpretation of Acts 2:38, this cannot be true. Why? Because, those who teach that one must be baptized in order to be saved interpret Acts 2:38 as saying that remission of sins is a result of repenting and being baptized. However, Acts 2:38 lists two results 'remission of sins' and reception of 'the gift of the Holy Spirit'. Therefore, based upon your own interpretation of Acts 2:38, those in Acts 10:45 must have already repented and been baptized. Yet, we find that this is not the case at all - according to Acts 10:47-48. I have made this point to numerous proponents of baptismal regeneration, yet not one has been able to respond to it. The evidence in Acts is clear that 2:38 should be read with the phrase 'let each on be baptized' included as an appositional statement. The 'remission of sins' and reception 'of the gift of the Holy Spirit' are the result of repentance alone, not baptism. Until someone from the baptismal regeneration perspective is able to explain away the two result clauses in Acts 2:38, they will forever be demonstrated to be in error by Acts 10. :-) Either both are a result of 'repentance and baptism' or both are a result of 'repentance' alone. There is simply no other option. If the first is true, than Acts 10:44 contradicts Acts 2:38. If the second is true, then Acts 10:44 makes perfect sense - those who had repented (and received remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit) were then urged to be baptized as a result of their salvation, not as a cause of it. p.s. - I hope I didn't sound 'short', but I (and many others) have had to deal with this issue many times before. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
2 | Can someone help w/my realtionship w/god | Rom 10:9 | BradK | 65506 | ||
Dear Tim, Amen! Again, your insightful remarks and solid exegesis both clarify and correct. I am amazed at what can be gained from the Greek in terms of nuances.(2 Tim. 2:15)The English translations at times can be lacking. Many doctrinal positions (and errors) are revealed and exposed to the "truth" of Gods' Word. I marvel at the fact that God in His infinite wisdom chose to use a language (Greek) that is very specific in its' meaning. Through its' study we find, not confusion, but further clarity and understanding. Thanks again for your wisdom and the obvious Christ-like character you show forth in the tone of your posts:-) Speaking the Truth In Love, BradK |
||||||
3 | Can someone help w/my realtionship w/god | Rom 10:9 | Morant61 | 65529 | ||
Greetings BradK! That is exactly what my Greek professor use to say! :-) Greek in one of, if not the most, specific languages in the history of the world. It was the perfect choice for the New Testament. However, most of these questions can be answered even without a knowledge of the original languages. One simply needs to interpret Scripture in such a way that every verse makes sense. In this particular debate, Eph. 2:8-9, Rom. 4, Gal. 2, and many others should make it perfectly clear that Acts 2:38 does not mean that one must be baptized in order to be saved. The problem is that many will fixate on a particular pet doctrine and then ignore the clear teachings of countless other Scriptures which teach against that pet doctrine. Fortunately, Greek can help in some difficult cases. Personally, I think the Greek construction of Acts 2:38 makes if perfectly clear that 'let each on be baptized' is a parenthetical statement and cannot be associated with the result clauses which go with the command to 'repent'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||