Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How is the Holy spirit given to you | Acts 2:38 | armond888 | 231509 | ||
Correction, The Bible list Baptism (Baptism of Repentence) as a requirement for receiving the Holy Spirit. This answer was not something I found just convenient to say, it is based on scripture. You may want to qualify your answer with a scriture or two as well. | ||||||
2 | How is the Holy spirit given to you | Acts 2:38 | BradK | 231513 | ||
Hello armond, I'd respectfully take issue with your statement, "The Bible list Baptism (Baptism of Repentence) as a requirement for receiving the Holy Spirit". Which scripture(s) list- or teach this? Acts 2:38? What then do we make of Eph 1:13, "In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation--having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise,"? Did Paul miss or overlook something in his declaration? The book of Acts being a narrative is not intending to delineate the doctrine(s) of salvation, i.e. how we are saved. It does contain doctrine but we must be careful not to isolate the teachings here from the rest of scripture, On the other hand, the book of Romans- which can rightly be referred to as the Theology of the NT- teaches nothing of the sort! So, I see the analogy of scripture lacking in support of your argument. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3 | How is the Holy spirit given to you | Acts 2:38 | armond888 | 231516 | ||
Excuse any typos I did not proof We continue to disagree respectfully as you say. Men asked what do they need to do in order to be saved and the Peter under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit said Acts 2:38 Peter said to them, "Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. Now why did Peter not leave out Baptism. Why did Peter not just say believe only as you claim. Because believing on Jesus is being repentent and includes water baptism. Repentence and water Baptism prepares the way for salvation. This is why John the Baptist declares He is preparing the way for the LORD. How was John preparing, through water baptism after realized repentence. No reprentance no baptism. Matt 3:7 But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees coming for baptism, he said to them, You brood of vipers! Who warned you to flee and escape from the wrath and indignation [of God against disobedience] that is coming? Matt 3:8 Bring forth fruit that is consistent with repentance [let your lives prove your change of heart]; The first thing Jesus did was get water baptised and then the Holy Spirit descended on Jesus. Guess someone should have told the Lord the water part was not neccessary. Or that water baptism can be held off for a later time because it really is unnecessary.. Jesus also told Nicodemus we must be born of the water and the spirit in order to become Born Again. Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. Another example. Acts 8:35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and beginning from this Scripture he preached Jesus to him Acts 8:36 As they went along the road they came to some water; and the eunuch *said, "Look! Water! What prevents me from being baptized?" Acts 8:37 [And Philip said, "If you believe with all your heart, you may." And he answered and said, "I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God."] Acts 8:38 And he ordered the chariot to stop; and they both went down into the water |
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4 | How is the Holy spirit given to you | Acts 2:38 | BradK | 231518 | ||
Hello armond, It's not a matter of simply disagreeing with you. We're dealing with core interpretive issues. With all due respect, your hermeuetic is missing something. I know what Acts 2:38 says. However, it's not the sum-total of what the NT let alone scripture teaches on the "requirements" for salvation! Proponents of baptismal regeneration tend to focus on this verse and isolate it from the rest of scripture (particulalry the Pauline corpus). This is what I mean by "analogy of scripture"? All the references you gave were from the Gospels and Acts! Did you purposefully neglect the other epistles? If so, why? Both the Gospel of John and Romans present the Gospel- and it's necessities clearly. Why do you not cite references from them? Again, I would think, since Romans- being a doctrinal epistle that lays out the doctrines of condemnation, salvation and santification- would be a key source. My question remains: What did Paul neglect (under inspiration) in his teaching on salvation (Soteriology)? I find it interesting that those like yourself who (seem to) promote baptism as a requirement for salvation leave out the Pauline epistles! Paul wrote essentially half the NT,(most all of them being doctrinal in nature) so how can one ignore the weight of this significant portion of scripture? Possibly you would address this question? You also cannot neglect the grammar of the NT to build you case. Consistent with both Searcher's post and Tim Moran, here's what Kenneth Weust, late NT Greek scholar- and one of the translators of the NASB had to say. "The words “unto” and “for” in Matthew 3:11 and Acts 2:38 are from the Greek preposition 'eis'. Dana and Mantey in their excellent treatment of Greek prepositions based upon the papyri findings, give as one of the uses of this word, “because of.” This usage is found in Matthew 12:41 where the men of Nineveh repented at or because of the preaching of Jonah, and in Romans 4:20, where Abraham did not stagger in unbelief, because of the promise of God. In the case of the men of Nineveh, Jonah’s preaching was the cause of their repentance. In the case of Abraham, the reason why he did not stagger in unbelief, was because of the promise of God. The word “stagger” here is from a Greek word which means “to vacillate between two opinions.” Thus it was the repentance of those who received John’s message which was the cause of their baptism. The same was true of Peter’s at Pentecost. John’s words were, “I indeed baptize you with water because of repentance,” and Peter’s, “Repent, and be baptized everyone of you in the name of Jesus Christ because of the remission of sins.” That this is the correct translation and interpretation of our texts is also seen from the testimony of Josephus to the effect that John the Baptist baptized people only after they had repented: “Who (John) was a good man, and commanded the Jews to exercise virtue, both as to righteousness towards one another and piety towards God, and so to come to baptism; for that the washing (with water) would be acceptable to him, if they made use of it, not in order to the putting away of some sins, but for the purification of the body; supposing still that the soul was thoroughly purified beforehand by righteousness.” John’s words, “Bring forth therefore fruits meet for repentance” (Matt. 3:8), clearly show that he demanded some evidence of salvation before he would baptize a person. Thus, we have the scriptural meaning of water baptism. It is the testimony of the person to the fact of his salvation. The only proper recipient of water baptism therefore is one who has received the Lord Jesus as his personal Saviour, and is trusting in His precious blood for salvation from sin. The Greek text thus clears up a difficulty found in the English translation. Baptism is not the prerequisite of repentance, much less its cause, but the testimony of the one who has entered the door of salvation." (cf Eph. 1:13) [Wuest, K. S. (1997). Wuest's word studies from the Greek New Testament] In summary, Acts 2:38 does not say or teach what YOU say it does! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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