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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Holy Spirit evidence of Salvation? | Acts 2:38 | let it rain | 51502 | ||
Hello Tim, I think you are confusing the one....what happened to Peter -- with the other....what Peter was given to teach the rest of us. That is probably why you confuse the special miracles (Pentecost and House of Cornelius) with the common (Acts 2:38) Though all salvation is miraculous, it's also quite obvious that the winds and tongues of fire don't happen every time someone is saved. They received the holy spirit without repentance or baptism, ("first for the jews") then revealed God's plan to all in their presence. Presumably, these were all Jews. Then they were led to the Gentiles, who received the Holy Spirit by the same special miracle as did the jews. ("then for the Gentiles") I can see baptism in both of these occasions, but I have to read repentance into the text. In his love! Rob |
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2 | Holy Spirit evidence of Salvation? | Acts 2:38 | Morant61 | 51505 | ||
Greetings Letitrain! Thanks for the response! I have three problems with your position! First of all, nothing is said in the text about 'special miracles' or 'special circumstances'. This is a major assumption and a convient way to get around what the text actually says. Secondly, the text of Acts 2:38 and Acts 10:45 is very specific. The exact same phrase is used in both verses in the Greek text. In English, they both read, "the gift of the Holy Spirit". Thirdly, Acts 2:38 makes it very clear that 'repentance' (plural command) is necessary to 'receive the gift of the Holy Spirit' (plural promise). So, those in Acts 10:45 could not have received the gift of the Holy Spirit unless they were believers. Now, either the baptismal regeneration view of Acts 2:38 is wrong or there is a contradiction between Acts 2:38 and Acts 10:45. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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