Results 1 - 3 of 3
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | The Book of 1 John | John 3:16 | BradK | 181802 | ||
Dear shing, I'm inclined to agree with brother Steve on this matter. Nowhere does scripture say either Noah or Job were perfect- in the sense that they were without sin. Gen. 6:9 reads (NASB) "righteous" and "blameless" in regards to his character. Only "in Christ" are we righteous. 2 Cor 5:21 tells us, "He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." (NASB) I have no righteousness or righteous standing apart from Him! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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2 | The Book of 1 John | John 3:16 | shing | 181881 | ||
Thank you for sharing in Love that is a commandment that we genuinely love everyone. Heres merriams definition of per·fect being entirely without fault or defect : FLAWLESS All I can say is when I read Matthew 5: 48Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect. I have to beleive perfect means what Jesus said about Noah and Job they were perfect. KJV I totally agree we have no righteousness without the Holy Ghost. Praise God for him sending it and allowing us to receive it. It is truely a gift from God. Lord Bless You |
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3 | The Book of 1 John | John 3:16 | BradK | 181890 | ||
Hello shing, As a note to your response, we need to be careful in taking the English meaning/definition of a word that was originally in Hebrew (OT), or Greek (NT), Since the Bible was originally penned in these languages, it is incumbent upon a true student of scripture to have at least a cursory understanding of them. Words mean things and one cannot simply derive the absolute sense of a word within a passage without knowing the original intent and henceforth meaning. It is called Word Study:-) The context in which the word is found, also is paramount in understanding it's true meaning! Allow me to address these to passages briefly: 1. In Gen. 6:9, the Heb. word for "blameless" is tamiym. It carries the basic meaning of, "complete", "whole", "entire", and "sound". The Commentary Critical gives this explanation: "6:9. Noah - just- and perfect—not absolutely; for since the fall of Adam no man has been free from sin except Jesus Christ. But as living by faith he was just (Gal. 3:2; Heb. 11:7) and perfect—that is, sincere in his desire to do God’s will." 2. The same principle follows in examining Matt. 5:48. The Greek word for "perfect" is telios. It carries the primary meaning of "brought to its end", then "finished, "wanting nothing", "necessary to completeness", and then thirdly, "perfect". Noted Greek scholar Dr. A.T Robertson had this to say on Matt. 5:48: "Perfect [teleioi]. The word comes from [telos], end, goal, limit. Here it is the goal set before us, the absolute standard of our Heavenly Father. The word is used also for relative perfection as of adults compared with children." The Bible Knowledge Commentary makes this observation: "Jesus concluded this section by saying, Be perfect therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect. His message demonstrated God’s righteous standard, for God Himself truly is the “standard” of righteousness. If these individuals are to be righteous, they must be as God is, “perfect,” that is, mature (teleioi) or holy. Murder, lust, hate, deception, and retaliation obviously do not characterize God. He did not lower His standard to accommodate humans; instead He set forth His absolute holiness as the standard. Though this standard can never be perfectly met by man himself, a person who by faith trusts in God enjoys His righteousness being reproduced in his life." Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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