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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | ... | John 16:28 | rabban | 191471 | ||
I presume I am unidentified responder, although as far as I am aware my name is clearly shown (see heading). In John 16.27 Jesus speaks of the disciples as believing that He had come from the Father, and in John 16.28 He says that He had come from the Father. Then in 16.30 in reply to this the disciples declared, 'By this we believe that you came from God.' It is surely quite clear that the Father is being described by the disciples as God. The terms are indeed often interchangeable, although clearly having a different emphasis. I am not sure why you should equate the Father in the New Testament with Jesus. That application only occurs in Isaiah 9.6 where the idea is that He is Father to His people in the same way as David would have been seen as being. As has also been pointed out John 5.18 clearly parallels the Father with God. Where then is the difficulty? I am also not quite sure what you mean by the difference in spelling. Are not 'God' and 'Father' usually spelled differently? It does not appear to me that there is a difference in definition. Just an indication that the disciples were still hesitant about speaking of 'the Father' in the way that Jesus did. They possibly recognised even at this stage the huge difference between themselvess and Jesus. Your other two 'questions' do not appear to be questions at all, so I am not sure what their purpose is. Are you just playing games?. |
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2 | ... | John 16:28 | ParsonPat | 191482 | ||
Unidentified responder wrote: "I presume I am unidentified responder, .... (see heading)." ParsonPat replies: I see no heading. Your response was received via Yahoo from the forum board. If either shows a header relating to your identify, I can't locate it. No games are intended, and the responses received are much appreciated and carefully scrutinized. I'm equating the usage of "Father" in the Gospels with Jesus (not in the entire NT) because that's what he seems to have done time and again whenever he was somehow likened to "God" (THEOS, in the sense that word is used to identify Yehovah/Jehovah/Allah of Judaism, Judeo-Christianity, and Islam). Accepted Judeo-Christian definitions for both God and Father aside, there is a major difference between the definitions of those 2 words in English, Greek, Hebrew, and in whatever other language they're used. To guide my research, I use various lexicons and dictionaries which also show significant differences in definition. This is why I suspect there might have been (I emphasize "might") something more to the meanings of those words in Jesus' mind than the usual post-Nicene/post-Reformation theological spins. In short, that's what I'm investigating and, granted, I may just be chasing my tail. But, that's how we might learn possibly new and different things and, at this point in my investigation, I'm considering the opinions of others. And don't worry: if I'm chasing geese, I'll drop it after I've exhausted all investigative avenues. PS: some of my postings are only polite acknowledgments of received responses. |
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3 | ... | John 16:28 | srbaegon | 191488 | ||
Hello ParsonPat, Allah of Islam is not the most high God of the Bible. Given that the words THEOS and PATHR are different, why must there be "more to the meanings of those words in Jesus' mind"? You seem to be rejecting the simplest answer. Steve |
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