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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is Mark 16:42 a failed prophecy? Help me | Mark 14:62 | Morant61 | 110924 | ||
Greetings Jon! Your first premise is actually incorrect. You state that 'you shall see' is addressed directly to the High Priest. Yet, the Greek verb is 2nd person plural. Therefore, Jesus was not specifically saying that the High Priest would see. One could argue that Jesus was addressing all those present, but a much more convincing arguement would simply be that Jesus was taking several well known quotes from the Old Testament and using them to fully reveal His true identity to the Jewish leaders. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Is Mark 16:42 a failed prophecy? Help me | Mark 14:62 | jonnyr1 | 110927 | ||
Even though I'm closing this topic, I have some final remaks. "Your first premise is actually incorrect. You state that 'you shall see' is addressed directly to the High Priest. Yet, the Greek verb is 2nd person plural." The context shows: Mr 14:60 And the high priest stood up in the midst, and asked Jesus, saying, Answerest thou nothing? what is it which these witness against thee? Mr 14:61 But he held his peace, and answered nothing. Again the high priest asked him, and said unto him, Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed? Mr 14:62 And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven. -It certainly would appear from every version I have read that he is speaking to the priest. But even if he is speaking to everyone, the problem still isn't solved. I'll not argue with your greek. Although I haven't looked at it myself. "Therefore, Jesus was not specifically saying that the High Priest would see." If Jesus was addressing the whole group, even more people would have to see him if the interpretation was taking literally. "One could argue that Jesus was addressing all those present, but a much more convincing arguement would simply be that Jesus was taking several well known quotes from the Old Testament and using them to fully reveal His true identity to the Jewish leaders." Saying 'I AM', showing miracles and quoting scripture would be adequate. Making a statement that doesn't come to pass is hardly the thing to do. The priest would have torn his clothes even if Jesus just said 'I AM' and didn't promise that he would return. To assume that we should let it slip as him revealing himself is unscriptural. still closing Jon |
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3 | Is Mark 16:42 a failed prophecy? Help me | Mark 14:62 | Emmaus | 110928 | ||
Jon, On another closing note. Is it possible that the High Priest at the moment of his dying saw what Stephen saw in Acts 7:56 as he was dying, something which we might all see at that time? Acts 7:56 "and he said, "Behold, I see the heavens opened up and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God." Emmaus |
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4 | Is Mark 16:42 a failed prophecy? Help me | Mark 14:62 | jonnyr1 | 110929 | ||
Hello Emmaus, A possiblity, but a stretch nonethless. Acts 7:56 says nothing of Stephen seeing Jesus return in the clouds, it says nothing about angels coming with (see matthew), says nothing of judging or rewarding those according to their works, etc.. Jon |
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