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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Paul had problems? No one acts good? | Matt 11:28 | DocTrinsograce | 164735 | ||
Dear Atdcross... You wrote, "Romans 7 is, I believe, not descriptive of any personal experience before or after conversion." A thought that you have expressed more than once in this forum and more than once elsewhere. I was going to demonstrate the deficiencies behind this statement. When, on further consider, question in due course surfaced in my mind, "Of whom, then is the experiences of chapter 7 being written?" You write, "Paul's experience as a Christian is the last thing that could be considered as the topic here." Continuing to leave an incredible vacuum that demands filling. When one comes to a passage of scripture, ejecting orthodox interpretation by the truck loads, it is remiss, at best, to fail to offer an alternative explanation. Certainly those 2,000 years of accumulated understanding, forming the basis for whole movements in the church, and the establishment of sound doctrine upon which creed, hymn, and sermon were written, warrant an interpretation at least as perspicuous as that which you jettison. Also, I'd be negligent if I didn't mention to you that coming into a public forum like this -- a lone crusader -- necessarily makes some well founded assumptions about your readers: They deserve an opportunity to way this theory of yours to see if it is found wanting. While you are at it, perhaps you might populate your personal profile so that we might be able to acknowledge the authority of the one making these new assertions. We'd like to see how you measure up to Augustine, Luther, Calvin, Beza, Wesly, Gill, Barnes, and others. (They are the old dead Bible students whose interpretation with which you have dispensed.) Please... elucidate! In Him, Doc |
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2 | Paul had problems? No one acts good? | Matt 11:28 | BradK | 164736 | ||
Hi Doc, Just a quick observation as I had similar thoughts. I think a very telling and important fact is in the grammar. In verses 7-13, the verb tenses are all past tense. In verses 14-25 the verbs are all present tense! So, in light of that, why would Paul distinguish tenses if he were not refering to himself as well as the clear fact that text uses "I"! Does I in grammar refer to someone other than the one writing? As usual, I believe the burden of proof is on the one making the assertion to prove it true! Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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