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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | what does Mark 8:27-38 verses mean | Mark | BradK | 142352 | ||
Feet washer, I just wanted to understand you correctly when you say "One of the Devils biggest misakes was when he had Jesus killed" ? Not to nitpick, but... Theologically, God was responsible according to Acts 2:23 "this Man,delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death." Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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2 | what does Mark 8:27-38 verses mean | Mark | Lionstrong | 142541 | ||
"Theologically, God was responsible according to Acts 2:23" Was He? Acts 7:52 "Which one of the prophets did your fathers not persecute? They killed those who had previously announced the coming of the Righteous One, whose betrayers and murderers you have now become; 1 Cor 2:8 the wisdom which none of the rulers of this age has understood; for if they had understood it they would not have crucified the Lord of glory; And take out the dependent clause in the verse you quoted: Acts 2:23 this Man ... you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death. God was not "responsible" for the murder of Christ; his murderers were "responsible." God's predestination does not make him "responsible." It makes him sovereign. Those who do the deeds, be they wicked or righteous, are "responsible." 2 Cor 5:10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each one may be recompensed for his deeds in the body, according to what he has done, whether good or bad. |
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3 | what does Mark 8:27-38 verses mean | Mark | DocTrinsograce | 142555 | ||
Not to quibble overmuch on this point, but doesn't John 10:18 expressly indicate that no one killed Him, but that He laid down His life of His own accord? I guess I've always thought that this is why scripture says "shed blood" rather than "spilled blood." Is the word apokteino in Luke 9:22 passive or active? Or is all this simply a matter of semantics? In Him, Doc |
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4 | what does Mark 8:27-38 verses mean | Mark | Morant61 | 142558 | ||
Greetings Doc! The word 'apokteino' in Luke 9:22 is an Aorist, Passive, Infinitive. The way I have always viewed the situation is that the Jewish leaders certainly killed Jesus, but He allowed it. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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