Results 1 - 7 of 7
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who was the first perfect man | Gen 5:24 | jlpangilinan | 96151 | ||
Ge 6:9 These are the generations of Noah: Noah was a just man and perfect in his generations, and Noah walked with God. The indication of the Bible regarding perfect is: Jas 3:2 For in many things we offend all. If any man offend not in word, the same is a perfect man, and able also to bridle the whole body. There are lot of perfect person mentioned in the Bible. God bless, |
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2 | Who was the first perfect man | Gen 5:24 | Makarios | 96153 | ||
Greetings Johnny, There was only one perfect man as so stated in Scripture, and that was Jesus Christ, the Son of God, who was without sin (Heb. 4:15; Heb. 7:26; 2 Cor. 5:21). Blessings to you, Makarios |
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3 | Who was the first perfect man | Gen 5:24 | jlpangilinan | 96173 | ||
Makarios, What's wrong with my KJV, it was stated there in the verses. God bless, |
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4 | Who was the first perfect man | Gen 5:24 | Makarios | 96183 | ||
Greetings Johnny, There is nothing wrong with your KJV. But there are a few things wrong with stating that Noah was "perfect" and stating that "there are many perfect men in the Bible." Let's only use the KJV for a minute. You cited James 3:2 and Genesis 6:9 in your post. Genesis 6:9 "These are the generations of Noah: Noah was a just man and perfect in his generations, and Noah walked with God." What does the KJV say that Noah was perfect in? It states that he was perfect in HIS GENERATIONS. So what does being "perfect in his generations" mean? Being "perfect in his generations" means that he was 'set apart' in comparison with his contemporaries in his geneaology (Seth was his ancestor [4:26], Enoch was his ancestor [5:24]), and those were both men that walked with God like Noah did [6:9]. James 3:2 "For in many things we offend all. If any man offend not in word, the same is a perfect man, and able also to bridle the whole body." What is James talking about in 3:2? He first says that "in many things we offend all".. We stumble in many things, and every man stumbles (Romans 3:23). However, if any man does not stumble when he speaks (or uses his tongue), then he is also able to bridle his whole body! He is a perfect man! James says this while knowing that nobody is perfect or able to completely master his tongue. Just look at verse 8 "But the tongue can no man tame; it is an unruly evil, full of deadly poison." Therefore, if James really believes that no man can tame the tongue in 3:8, and all men fall prey to its evil, then he is really saying that there is noone who is sinless in 3:2. Blessings to you, Makarios P.S. This post was written by only consulting of the King James Version of the Holy Bible. |
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5 | Who was the first perfect man | Gen 5:24 | jlpangilinan | 96188 | ||
Makarios, Let quote some verses stating that there are perfect person in the Bible. Job 1:1 There was a man in the land of Uz, whose name was Job; and that man was perfect and upright, and one that feared God, and eschewed evil. Job 1:8 And the LORD said unto Satan, Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth Quote"What does the KJV say that Noah was perfect in? It states that he was perfect in HIS GENERATIONS. and end of quote. Your argument there is "noah is perfect in" his generations how about job? it is God considered job as a perfect and upright? do you think that is not true? I do believed that there is perfect in earth because even Christ commanded to be perfect because Our Father in heaven is perfect: Mt 5:48 Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect. Do you think Christ will say this if no one can do so? otherwise is just saying nonsense things. God bless, |
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6 | Who was the first perfect man | Gen 5:24 | Makarios | 96191 | ||
Greetings Johnny, Job 1:1 (and following) states in the KJV that Job was "perfect." However, Romans 3:23 states in the KJV, "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;".. So, Johnny, which do you believe? Job 1:1 or Romans 3:23??? The Answer is: Both are true!! So, if both Rom. 3:23 and Job 1:1 are true, then how are we to take Job 1:1? Here is some commentary on this verse: "1:1 blameless. Job was not perfect in the sense of being sinless. The Bible teaches (and experience supports the fact) that every person falls short of God's standard of perfection (Rom. 3:23). The writer is asserting here that Job could not be justly charged with any moral failure by his fellow men. From the human point of view he was without blame." (1) Matthew 5:48 says in the KJV, "Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect." If nobody is perfect (Rom. 3:23), then why did Jesus tell us to be 'perfect'????? Jesus knew that man could not be completely without sin, since He knew what was in a man (John 2:25). Therefore, Jesus is challenging those who believe in Him to become mature and complete in the likeness of God, striving to do all and be all that those who believe in His name should be in Matthew, chapters 5,6 and 7. Blessings to you, Makarios (1) Ryrie Study Bible, Expanded Edition, 1995, The Moody Bible Institute of Chicago, Charles C. Ryrie, pg. 779 |
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7 | Who was the first perfect man | Gen 5:24 | jlpangilinan | 96196 | ||
Makarios, Being "perfect" of Job and others was been taught us not as being "sinless" but they are recognize by the scriptures as "perfect" and not as "sinless" I did not mentioned in my note (just a reminder) that they are "sinless" but they called perfect. We have no problem about that my friend. God bless, |
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