Bible Question:
In Isiah 53:4-5 it says: “…by his stripes we are healed.” Present tense is used here. 1 Peter 2:24 it says: “…by whose stripes ye were healed.” Past tense is used here. I’m guessing 1 Peter 2:24 uses past tense since Jesus’s atonement had already been done to provide for salvation and healing. Is that right? Since the attonement hasn’t happened yet in Isiah 53:4-5, why is present tense used? |
Bible Answer: Hi, Bob777... Welcome to the forum! Redemption stands as a point in time at the Cross. Nonetheless, from the protevangelium (Genesis 3:15) to the salvation of the very last believer, all of the saved, rest in this single means. Thus, for example, as Scripture says, God preached the gospel to Abraham (Galatians 3:8). Of course, Abraham did not know the name of Jesus, as His birth was yet far in the future. On the other hand, those of us who are saved, look to the Lord Jesus Christ in time past. To us, it is an historical point. Nonetheless, no one is saved except through this Christ and Christ alone (Acts 4:12). Expand your thinking. Recognize that we are creatures of time in the same way that fish are creatures of water. However, time, to our Creator, is but another artifact of His design and control. In Him, Doc |
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Bob777 | ||
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DocTrinsograce | ||
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lionheart | ||
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Bob777 | ||
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imcindy347 | ||
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holyghost2 | ||
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chris56 | ||
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havohej | ||
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lionheart | ||
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leezer | ||
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josevizcain | ||
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justme | ||
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lalangunter |