Bible Question (short): Why present tense used in Isiah 53:4-5 |
Question (full): In Isiah 53:4-5 it says: “…by his stripes we are healed.” Present tense is used here. 1 Peter 2:24 it says: “…by whose stripes ye were healed.” Past tense is used here. I’m guessing 1 Peter 2:24 uses past tense since Jesus’s atonement had already been done to provide for salvation and healing. Is that right? Since the attonement hasn’t happened yet in Isiah 53:4-5, why is present tense used? |