Bible Question (short): God created man sin-ful? |
Question (full): Scripture teaches that there is only One God, that God gives His glory to no one, and there is none like God. I do not believe God can reduplicate Himself in Himself so part of His plan for man is to create heaven, earth, etc. I have come to believe that God created man (Adam) sin-ful, or as the word is defined by Strong's "to miss the mark." What is that "mark?" The glory of God. Adam sinned because he was created a sinner, or sin-ful, as there is only One God. If God is the standard by which everyone and everything is judged, and if Paul is correct that "I had not known sin but by the Law. For I had not known lust except the Law said 'thou shalt not covet." Wouldn't the command to Adam "thou shalt not eat of it [the fruit/tree]" also qualify as a law/command of "thou shalt not" showing that Adam was a sinner? Adam had not known disobedience except the law/command said "thou shalt not eat of it?" Sin comes from sinners, sin does not come from holy, and if man was anything less than holy he would sin. The last Adam proves this? |