Bible Question: Why did the NASB translators use the word "immorality" to describe acts of fornication(ephesians 5:3;1 corinthians 6:18)? Why didnt they instead use the word fornication like other Bible translations? |
Bible Answer: Greetings and welcome to the forum. That’s a question you would have to ask the translators and we are only forum members like yourself. I hope you enjoy the forum, CDBJ |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Bible general Archive 4 | Author | ||
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valspapa | ||
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cjhays | ||
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valspapa | ||
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servant4 | ||
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jingjing | ||
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LJ777 | ||
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LJ777 | ||
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gfernandez1 | ||
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CDBJ | ||
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Oakeyroad | ||
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Minnie420 |