Subject: the word "world" and "all" refer to all |
Bible Note: Dear hupogramos, Based on your original question, I think that you are trying to use John 3:16 in a way that would wrest it out of it a doctrine that it is not directly addressing. We must always interpret scripture in the context in which it is given. (See post #156918.) Look again at the passage, paying attention to whom Christ is speaking. Our Lord divides humanity into two broad categories (vv10-21). What characterizes these two groups of people? What is revealed about God's purpose in general, and Christ's role in particular? How do things fit into John's introduction to his Gospel in chapter 1, and his summation at the end of the chapter in question? When you have that firmly in mind, you ought to be able to determine something about the object of God's love in John 3:16. It might also be worth noting that the Apostle John uses the word "world" in his Gospel well over fifty times. Just like we do in English, he doesn't always use it in the same way. However, checking its use in the broader context of the passage in question should help you ferret out a good answer. When you have expended the effort to do this, you will have something more valuable than you would if I simply gave you my own thoughts. You will have something closer to God's own thoughts. In Him, Doc |