Bible Question: why does God limit himself as to what will be done through man? |
Bible Answer: Hi, Deborah... That is a wonderful Biblical name, isn't it? I believe it means bee -- if memory serves. This might help: "God, in His ordinary providence makes use of means (Acts 27:31,44; Isaiah 55:10-11), yet [He] is free to work without (Hosea 1:7), above (Romans 4:19-21), and against them (Daniel 3:27) at His pleasure." (1689 London Baptist Confession of Faith, Chapter 5, Paragraph 3) No doubt as God works out His eternal purpose (Ephesians 1:11), the way in which He works will bring Him greater glory. In addition, what a blessing that He would use men at all? In Him, Doc |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Bible general Archive 4 | Author | ||
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GeriSwimmer | ||
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deborahhatchell@yahoo.com | ||
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deborahhatchell@yahoo.com | ||
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DocTrinsograce | ||
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EdB | ||
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almc | ||
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Schone_LeAnna | ||
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goodguy30165 | ||
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goodguy30165 | ||
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hmisty64 | ||
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rstrats | ||
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htaylor22 |