Bible Question: I have a question regarding 2 Tim 3:17. I recently purchased an NASB Bible with Hebrew/Greek Key Word Concordance. In that verse, the NASB says, "that the man of God may be ADEQUATE." The Strong's Concordance that I have PLUS the concordance in the Bible state that the Greek indicates "complete" or "perfect." and that the Greek implies "all that is needed to complete a task." Therefore, I have to say that adequate is a poor choice of words there. I'm wondering why that word was used. Thank you! |
Bible Answer: rowdyreader, Greeting rowdy. "all that is needed to complete a task" is just about exactly the definition of the word adequate. Now when you and I use that word, we probably are thinking along the lines of "the absolute minimum to be enough." However, that isn't actually part of the definition of the word. It just means sufficient for what is needed, without the negative connotation. In Christ, Beja |
Up | Down View Branch | ID# 226908 | ||
Questions and/or Subjects for Bible general Archive 4 | Author | ||
|
lrbarrett19 | ||
|
BoJac1 | ||
|
rowdyreader | ||
|
Beja | ||
|
muck | ||
|
justme | ||
|
chilis | ||
|
GodSold9304 | ||
|
justme | ||
|
justme | ||
|
slm08 |