Bible Question (short): Why use "adequate" in 2 Tim 3:17 |
Question (full): I have a question regarding 2 Tim 3:17. I recently purchased an NASB Bible with Hebrew/Greek Key Word Concordance. In that verse, the NASB says, "that the man of God may be ADEQUATE." The Strong's Concordance that I have PLUS the concordance in the Bible state that the Greek indicates "complete" or "perfect." and that the Greek implies "all that is needed to complete a task." Therefore, I have to say that adequate is a poor choice of words there. I'm wondering why that word was used. Thank you! |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Bible general Archive 4 | Author | ||
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lrbarrett19 | ||
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BoJac1 | ||
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rowdyreader | ||
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Beja | ||
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muck | ||
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justme | ||
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chilis | ||
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GodSold9304 | ||
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justme | ||
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justme | ||
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slm08 |