Subject: Mark of the Beast |
Bible Note: Dear Brother Mark, No, the questions are really the same. I apologize for the confusion. Since it was penned, Revelation has been called apocalyptic from the first word of the book -- from which it gets its title -- apokalupsis. Nevertheless, if it helps to "unload" my question, let me rephrase: "On what hermeneutical principle of Biblical exegesis does one switch back and forth from literal interpretation to figurative interpretation?" This avoids the question of genre entirely. If need be, reintroduce a genre categorization as you see fit. If the "text gives no foundation to believe anything other," then it should be possible to articulate the corresponding principle. I don't mean to put you on the spot. We need sound foundational reasons to ground our every emphatic exegetical statement. Furthermore, if I'm missing a principle of this kind of power, I'd like to be able to apply it to the rest of Revelation. (Indeed, after stating it, it would be helpful to me to demonstrate the principle on the other elements of the chapter.) Thank you for taking the time to respond. In Him, Doc |