Bible Question:
Does 'Satan' Really Exist? If 'Satan' is an actual person, how can the parallel accounts of Davids numbering of Israel be explained: 1 Chronicles 21:1 "And Satan stood up against Israel, and provoked David to number Israel." 24:1 "And again the anger of the LORD was kindled against Israel, and he moved David against them to say, Go, number Israel and Judah." If 'Satan' is an actual person, scripture would here indicate that 'Satan' is God. How is this possible? Secondly, if you believe that the 'war in heaven' of Revelation 12 is a literal war and not symbolic, how can it be understood in terms of it's correct chronological context: Revelation 1:1 "The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass." This means that the 'war in heaven' must occur some time after the giving of The Revelation - it must "shortly come to pass." This would place it historically some time after circa 70AD. In other words, if you believe that 'Satan' is a fallen angel, then you must also believe that he did not become a fallen angel until after the whole of The Bible had been written, thus preventing the 'Satan' of Revelation 12 from being the 'Satan' of the rest of The Bible. Okay, and thanks. Dr. B. |
Bible Answer: My understanding of Job 1:6-12, is that Satan is a real person, the LORD says so , and that is good enough for me. It is abundantly clear from the above verses, and also Ch 2:6. that Satan is not able to do anything without Divine permission, this is confirmed in the NT at 1st Cor 10:13. This explains the apparent contradiction of 1 Cron 21:1, and 1 Sam 24:1. |