Bible Question (short): After his own kind |
Question (full): I have read most of the comments that stemmed from my question. Your statement is the reason why I can't believe that there were "fallen angels" and human woman having children. From what I can understand we have free will right, so if these angels did such a thing what would stop it from happening again. Also if the angels mixed with the women, why in the following verses it states the men became wicked. If you read the entire story in context it makes more sense to me that these great "giants" were godly men that mixed with ungodly women and became evil. GOD was not pleased and then destroyed them. I am trying to learn how to intepret the Bible. I have been told that you interpret scripture against scripture. But just because you use a phrase in one book of the Bible (for instance Job uses the sons of God to mean angels) doesn't necessarily mean the same phrase is used the same way in another part of the bible. You have to read the context and compare context with context. If one scripture is referring to something in context and it also refering to the same thing "in context" then yes it would mean the samething. (correct?). Another example would be when I first read Gen 5:24 I did not understand what was meant by "And Enoch walked with God; and he was not, for God took him". It was not until I read Heb 11:5 that I understood by faith he did not see death. |